This section on Polity & Governance focuses specifically on the Constitution and Political System, compiling UPSC Prelims Previous Year Questions from 1995 to 2025. It offers a comprehensive view of constitutional provisions, institutions, amendments, and evolving political dynamics essential for aspirants’ conceptual clarity and exam readiness.
Q. Consider the following statements: [2025]
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Answer: (d)
Q. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: [2025]
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Answer: (a)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2025]
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Answer: (c)
Q. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: [2025]
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Answer: (d)
Q. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? [2024]
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? [2024]
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (c)
Q. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over? [2024]
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: (d)
Q. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: [2024]
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Q. A parliamentary system of government is one in which [2020]
Answer: (b)
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: [2019]
- No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
- An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Answer: (d)
Q. With reference to the constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? [2019]
Answer: (b)
Q. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining to be declared null and void? [2019]
Answer: (b)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2019]
- The motion to impeach a judge of the supreme court of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- The constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- The details of the process of the impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- If the motion of the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each house of the parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that house and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2019]
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Q. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? [2018]
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"? [2018]
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 & 3 only
(b) 2 & 4 only
(c) 1, 2 & 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) 2 & 4 only
(c) 1, 2 & 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: (c)
Q. Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty? [2018]
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Answer: (b)
Q. In the federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, Residuary Powers were given to the [2018]
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Answer: (b)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2018]
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2017]
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- 1. legislative function.
- 2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Q. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? [2017]
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Answer: (b)
Q. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? [2017]
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Answer: (a)
Q. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? [2017]
- A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? [2017]
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many
Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? [2017]
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 & 4 only
(b) 2, 3 & 4 only
(c) 1 & 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Answer: (c)
Q. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? [2017]
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Answer: (a)
Q. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? [2017]
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Answer: (b)
Q. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the [2016]
Answer: (d)
Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct? [2016]
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Answer: (b)
Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: [2015]
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these 'Principles are not enforceable by any court.
2. The provisions contained in these 'Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Answer: (c)
Q. 'The idea of Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its [2015]
Answer: (b)
Q. "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the [2015]
Answer: (d)
Q. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India? [2015]
Answer: (d)
The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to [2015]
Answer: (a)
Q. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the [2014]
Answer: (b)
Q. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? [2014]
Answer: (d)
Q. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in [2013]
Answer: (b)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2013]
- National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b)
Q. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? [2013]
- National Development Council
- Planning Commission
- Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer: (d)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2013]
- An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Q. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? [2013]
Answer: (c)
Q. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were [2013]
Answer: (c)
Q. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the Act provided in the [2012]
Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? [2012]
- To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
- To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
- To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
- To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer: (c)
Q. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? [2012]
- The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
- The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
- The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
- The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? [2012]
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer: (d)
Q. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India? [2012]
Answer: (b)
Q. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: [2012]
- Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
- Organizing village Panchayats
- Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
- Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer: (b)
Q. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? [2011]
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Answer: (a)
Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: [2010]
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of the State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of the State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Answer: (c)
Q. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People? [2009]
(a) 90th
(b) 91st
(c) 92nd
(d) 93rd
Answer: (b)
Q. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22? [2008]
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Answer: (c)
Q. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains:
Special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? [2008]
Special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? [2008]
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Answer: (b)
Q. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy? [2008]
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Q. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively? [2007]
(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th
Answer: (a)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2006]
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age-group by the State by the seventy-sixth Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the Forty-second Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age-group by the State by the seventy-sixth Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the Forty-second Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 2 & 3
(d) 1 & 3
Answer: (c)
Q. Which one among the following commission was set up pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? [2006]
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Answer: (c)
Q. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to? [2006]
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain states.
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India.
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the central Government.
Answer: (c)
Q. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2006]
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public Health
Answer: (a)
Q. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? [2005]
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharalal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Answer: (c)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2005]
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Answer: (c)
Q. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to: [2005]
(a) empowering the centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001
(d) the demarcation of new boundaries between States.
Answer: (d)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2005]
- Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.
- Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
- A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (d)
Q. Consider the following statements: [2005]
- Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1992.
- Part IXA of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of Municipalities a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (a)
Q. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2004]
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. Article 14 | 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term |
| B. Article 15 | 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India |
| C. Article 16 | 3. 'Untouchability' is abolished and its practice in any from is forbidden |
| D. Article 17 | 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State |
Codes:
- (a) A-2 B-4, C-1, D-3
- (b) A-3 B-1, C-4, D-2
- (c) A-2 B-1, C-4, D-3
- (d) A-3 B-4, C-1, D-2
Answer: (c)
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? [2004]
- (a) Article 257
- (b) Article 258
- (c) Article 355
- (d) Article 358
Answer: (a)
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2004]
- (a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
- (b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
- (c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
- (d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Answer: (d)
Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories? [2003]
- (a) First
- (b) Second
- (c) Third
- (d) Fourth
Answer: (a)
Q. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States? [2003]
- (a) 6th & 22nd
- (b) 13th & 38th
- (c) 7th & 31st
- (d) 11th & 42nd
Answer: (c)
Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: [2003]
| List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution) | List-II (Country from which it was derived) |
|---|---|
| A. Directive Principles of State Policy | 1. Australia |
| B. Fundamental Rights | 2. Canada |
| C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations | 3. Ireland |
| D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union | 4. United Kingdom |
| 5. United States of America |
Codes:
- (a) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2
- (b) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
- (c) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1
- (d) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2
Answer: (d)
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that 'It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance'? [2003]
- (a) Article 215
- (b) Article 275
- (c) Article 325
- (d) Article 355
Answer: (d)
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court's opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission's decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002)? [2003]
- (a) Article 142
- (b) Article 143
- (c) Article 144
- (d) Article 145
Answer: (b)
Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)? [2003]
- (a) Article 121
- (b) Article 122
- (c) Article 123
- (d) Article 124
Answer: (c)
Q. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by: [2003]
- (a) First Amendment
- (b) Eighth Amendment
- (c) Ninth Amendment
- (d) Forty Second Amendment
Answer: (a)
Q. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security? [2002]
- (a) 51
- (b) 48 A
- (c) 43 A
- (d) 41
Answer: (a)
Q. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish: [2002]
Answer: (d)
Q. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2002]
| List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) | List-II (Provisions) |
|---|---|
| A. Article 16 (2) | 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law |
| B. Article 29 (2) | 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste |
| C. Article 30 (1) | 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice |
| D. Article 31 (1) | 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them |
Codes:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer: (a)
Q. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the: [2002]
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 per cent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 per cent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
Answer: (b)
Q. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers? [2002]
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Answer: (d)
Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2001]
| List-I (Article of the Constitution) | List-II (Content) |
|---|---|
| A. Article 54 | 1. Election of the President of India |
| B. Article 75 | 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister |
| C. Article 155 | 3. Appointment of the Governor of a State |
| D. Article 164 | 4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State |
| 5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies |
Codes:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: (b)
Q. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended? [2001]
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth
Answer: (a)
Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2001]
| List-I (Amendments to the Constitution) | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 | 1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals |
| B. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act. 1994 | 2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh |
| C. The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act, 2000 | 3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local level |
| D. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000 | 4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission |
| 5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi |
Codes:
(a) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4
(c) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4
(c) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2
Answer: (a)
Q. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2001]
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Answer: (d)
Q. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education? [2001]
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350-A
(d) Article 351
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350-A
(d) Article 351
Answer: (c)
Q. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the: [2000]
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural areas
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination
Answer: (c)
Q. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996: [1999]
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Q. Consider the following statements: [1999]
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature
4. President
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: (d)
Q. The Constitution of India recognises: [1999]
(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
Answer: (c)
Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act? [1998]
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Answer: (d)
Q. In the following quotation,
"WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to noi constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic [100 Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.
In our Constituent Assembly this 'X' do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.”, [1997]
"WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to noi constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic [100 Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.
In our Constituent Assembly this 'X' do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.”, [1997]
'X' stands for:
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
Q. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India? [1997]
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 & 2
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 & 2
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
Answer: (b)
Q. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). [1997]
Assertion (A): Reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require any Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d)
Q. Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj? [1997]
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all level
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government
Answer: (c)
Q. What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention? [1995]
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House
(c) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers
(d) If both the President and the Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House
(c) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers
(d) If both the President and the Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President
Answer: (b)
Q. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this? [1995]
1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five years
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five years
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Q. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states? [1995]
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in the Parliament
3. Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council in a State
2. Representation of states in the Parliament
3. Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council in a State
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1, 2 & 4
(c) 1, 3 & 4
(d) 2, 3 & 4
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1, 2 & 4
(c) 1, 3 & 4
(d) 2, 3 & 4
Answer: (a)
Q. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India? [1995]
1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor's Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council
2. The Governor's Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council
Codes:
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1, 2 & 3
(c) 3 & 4
(d) 4 only
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1, 2 & 3
(c) 3 & 4
(d) 4 only
Answer: (b)