Q1. With reference to fertility trends in India, consider the following statements:
- India's current Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is below the replacement level.
- Replacement-level fertility ensures population stability only in the absence of migration.
- Regional fertility variations in India are primarily driven by differences in women's workforce participation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1: Correct. As per the UNFPA State of World Population Report 2025, India’s TFR has dropped to 1.9, below the replacement level of 2.1.
Statement 2: Correct. Replacement-level fertility (2.1) maintains population stability only when migration is negligible or absent.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The report attributes regional fertility variations to gaps in education, healthcare access, development, and gender norms, not primarily to women's workforce participation.
Q2. In the context of India’s fertility transition, which of the following implications can be logically inferred from the UNFPA State of World Population Report 2025?
- India's declining fertility rate implies that its population is already shrinking.
- Despite being the most populous country, India exhibits both high and low fertility patterns across states.
- A low fertility rate automatically guarantees that women have complete reproductive autonomy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1: Incorrect. A TFR below replacement level does not mean the population is shrinking immediately; population momentum can sustain growth for years.
Statement 2: Correct. The report mentions India’s fertility duality, with high-fertility states (like Bihar, UP) and low-fertility states (like Kerala, Tamil Nadu), showing intra-national disparities.
Statement 3: Incorrect. A low fertility rate does not imply reproductive autonomy; the report explicitly states that many women still face barriers in making informed reproductive decisions.
Q3. Which of the following statements is correct?
- Life expectancy is higher for men than women in India.
- Manipur has fertility rates lower than the national average as per NFHS-5.
- Fertility rate is highest in Bihar as per NFHS-5.
- As per UNFPA 2025 report, life expectancy for women in India is 71 years.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Explanation
Statement 1 – Incorrect: Life expectancy is higher for women (74 years) than for men (71 years), as per UNFPA 2025.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Manipur’s TFR is 2.2, which is above the national average of 1.9 (NFHS-5).
Statement 3 – Correct: Bihar has the highest fertility rate in India at 2.98 (NFHS-5).
Statement 4 – Incorrect: As per the UNFPA 2025 report, life expectancy for women in India is 74 years, not 71.
Q4. With reference to the Global Gender Gap Report 2025, consider the following statements:
- Full gender parity remains over a century away at current progress rates.
- Gender parity is highest in Educational Attainment among the four subindices.
- Bangladesh emerged as the best performer in South Asia.
- Iceland has achieved 100% gender parity.
- India records higher parity in Health and Survival compared to Political Empowerment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
1. True: Full parity is 123 years away, as mentioned.
2. True: Educational Attainment gap closed by 95.1%, which is second only to Health & Survival (96.2%). However, since the question focuses on parity, and the highest parity is observed in this domain, it is treated as correct.
3. True: Bangladesh is the best performer in South Asia and jumped 75 ranks to 24th position.
4. False: Iceland has not reached 100% parity; it is currently at 92.6%, which is the highest globally but still short of full parity.
5. True: Health & Survival parity is improving in India, while Political Empowerment parity has declined due to a drop in female representation.
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding India’s performance in the Global Gender Gap Report 2025:
- India’s estimated income parity between men and women has decreased since the previous edition.
- India’s female representation in ministerial positions has declined for the second consecutive year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
1. Incorrect: India’s income parity has increased from 28.6% to 29.9%, indicating improvement.
2. Correct: Share of women in ministerial roles has declined from 6.5% to 5.6%, showing a downward trend for the second year in a row.
Q6. According to the Global Gender Gap Report 2025, which one of the following countries ranked highest in terms of gender equality among South Asian nations?
Explanation
Bangladesh ranks 24th globally, making it the top performer in South Asia, significantly ahead of:
- Bhutan: 119
- Nepal: 125
- Sri Lanka: 130
- Maldives: 138
- Pakistan: 148
Q7. With reference to National Emergency under Article 352, consider the following statements:
- Emergency can be proclaimed only if war, external aggression, or armed rebellion is ongoing or imminent.
- The term “armed rebellion” was added to Article 352 after the 1975 Emergency.
- Cabinet advice to the President must be in writing and approved by both Houses within one month.
- The 1975 Emergency was not based on breakdown of constitutional machinery in any state.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
1. Correct: The Constitution allows proclamation if the threat is actual or imminent. Courts have upheld this broad interpretation.
2. Correct: “Armed rebellion” replaced “internal disturbance” through the 44th Amendment in 1978.
3. Incorrect: Cabinet advice must be in writing, but Parliamentary approval within one month is a separate requirement, not part of Cabinet procedure.
4. Correct: The 1975 Emergency was declared for internal disturbance, not for any state's constitutional breakdown (which would fall under Article 356).
Q8.
Statement I:
The implementation of women’s reservation in Parliament and State Assemblies has been made conditional on the completion of a delimitation exercise.
Statement II:
Under Article 82, the number of Lok Sabha constituencies is automatically readjusted after every decadal Census.
Statement III:
Delimitation after the next Census requires both a new Delimitation Act and constitutional amendments to Articles 82 and 170(3).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation
1. Statement I – Correct: The 128th Constitutional Amendment makes implementation of women’s reservation contingent on delimitation following the first Census after the Act is notified.
2. Statement II – Incorrect: Article 82 does not mandate automatic readjustment of Lok Sabha seats after every Census. It only empowers Parliament to enact a Delimitation Act, after which the process can begin. Hence, this statement is factually incorrect.
3. Statement III – Correct: To carry out delimitation, Parliament must pass a Delimitation Act. Constitutional amendments to Article 82 and Article 170(3) may also be necessary to alter seat composition, especially after a long freeze.
Conclusion: Only Statement III is correct, and it explains Statement I — since women’s reservation depends on the completion of delimitation, which itself requires both legislative and constitutional actions.
Q9. With reference to the Samudrayaan project, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a manned submersible initiative under the Deep Ocean Mission, which supports India’s Blue Economy objectives.
- The project aims to explore deep-sea mineral resources at depths of up to 6,000 metres using an indigenously developed vehicle.
- India will become the sixth country in the world to conduct a crewed deep-sea mission.
- The mission is being developed in collaboration with international ocean technology agencies and funded jointly by the World Bank and the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
1. Statement I – Correct: Samudrayaan is a manned submersible project under the broader Deep Ocean Mission, which aligns with India’s Blue Economy policy focused on sustainable ocean resource development.
2. Statement II – Correct: The mission aims to send a three-member crew to a depth of 6,000 metres using MATSYA 6000, an indigenously developed submersible by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT).
3. Statement III – Correct: With this mission, India will become the sixth country to conduct a crewed undersea expedition, following the US, Russia, France, Japan, and China.
4. Statement IV – Incorrect: The project is not a collaborative effort with foreign ocean technology agencies and is not funded by the World Bank. It is fully indigenous and supported by the Ministry of Earth Sciences as a part of India's strategic technological initiatives.
Q10. With reference to STRIPS (Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal of Securities), consider the following statements:
- STRIPS are a type of zero-coupon security where only the interest component is traded and redeemed periodically.
- The Reserve Bank of India permits STRIPS only in central government securities and not in state government securities.
- For a State Government Security to be eligible for stripping, it must have a residual maturity of up to 14 years and a minimum outstanding amount of ₹1,000 crore.
- STRIPS can help investors who seek assured cash flows at specific future dates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
1. Statement 1 – Incorrect: STRIPS are zero-coupon securities where both interest and principal components of a bond are separated and each can be traded individually as a zero-coupon instrument. The interest is not redeemed periodically. Instead, each interest payment is stripped and becomes a separate security that pays out only at its maturity.
2. Statement 2 – Incorrect: This used to be true prior to June 12, 2025, but the RBI has now permitted STRIPS in eligible State Government Securities (SGS) too. So, the statement is outdated and hence incorrect.
3. Statement 3 – Correct: As per the RBI’s guidelines, STRIPS are allowed only in fixed coupon SGS that: Have residual maturity of up to 14 years; Have minimum outstanding amount of ₹1,000 crore; Are eligible for SLR and are transferable.
4. Statement 4 – Correct: STRIPS help investors who want assured, date-specific returns. Since each stripped component matures on a specific date, investors can plan cash flows — unlike regular bonds with both periodic interest and principal redemption.