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Home » UPSC Prelims Quiz » UPSC Prelims Quiz: July 31, 2025

UPSC Prelims Quiz: July 31, 2025

Q1. Which of the following techniques is/are used for enhancing mangrove restoration in areas with limited natural tidal flow?
1. Fishbone channeling technique
2. Vertical bunding and furrowing
3. Artificial aerial root stimulation
4. Silvo-aquaculture trenching
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

1. Fishbone channeling technique – Correct
  • This is a well-established mangrove restoration method used in places where natural tidal inundation is insufficient.
  • Involves a main canal and multiple angled side canals mimicking a fish skeleton to distribute tidal water to elevated or degraded lands.
  • Used in India (e.g., Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary) for ecological restoration and coastal protection.
2. Vertical bunding and furrowing – Incorrect
  • This technique is more common in agricultural water management or contour trenching for slope stabilization and soil moisture conservation.
  • It is not specifically adapted or recognized for mangrove restoration, especially not for improving tidal flow.
3. Artificial aerial root stimulation – Incorrect
  • Mangrove aerial roots (like pneumatophores) develop naturally in response to waterlogged or anoxic soil conditions.
  • Artificial stimulation is not a documented or scientifically validated technique for mangrove rehabilitation. There’s no standard practice by this name.
4. Silvo-aquaculture trenching – Correct
  • Refers to integrating aquaculture with mangrove plantation by digging trenches or ponds among planted mangroves.
  • This helps maintain water flow, supports biodiversity, and provides livelihood options.
  • Practiced in Sundarbans and coastal Bangladesh, though mainly for livelihood-focused restoration.

Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only

Q2. With reference to the Adi community of Arunachal Pradesh, consider the following statements:
1. They follow a clan-based system governed by a council called Kebang.
2. Tapu is one of their traditional war dances.
3. Tagin and Nishi are major subgroups of the Adi community.
4. Solung and Aaran are among their key festivals.
5. The Gaon Burra serves as a traditional village head.
How many of the above statements are associated with the Adi community?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: The Adi community uses a clan-based social system, and the Kebang is a traditional council that governs social and administrative matters.
Statement 2 – Correct: Tapu is indeed a war dance performed by the Adi.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Tagin and Nishi are tribes distinct from the Adi. They are different tribes within Arunachal Pradesh, not subgroups of the Adi community.
Statement 4 – Correct: Solung and Aaran are major Adi festivals.
Statement 5 – Correct: Gaon Burra is the village elder or head among the Adi.

Answer: (c) Only four

Q3. With reference to the tributaries of the Brahmaputra River, consider the following pairs:
TributaryNotable Feature
1. SubansiriOriginates in Tibet and is the largest tributary
2. ManasFlows through Bhutan before entering India
3. TeestaOriginates in Bhutan and joins the Brahmaputra in Assam
4. KopiliRight-bank tributary from Meghalaya plateau
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Explanation:

Pair 1 – Subansiri: Correct. The Subansiri originates in Tibet and flows into India; it is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra by volume.
Pair 2 – Manas: Correct. The Manas River flows from Tibet, through Bhutan, and then enters Assam, India before meeting the Brahmaputra.
Pair 3 – Teesta: Incorrect. Teesta originates in Sikkim (not Bhutan) and joins the Jamuna (main distributary of Brahmaputra in Bangladesh), not in Assam.
Pair 4 – Kopili: Incorrect. The Kopili is a left-bank (not right-bank) tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating from the Meghalaya plateau.

Correct Answer: (b) Only two

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Brahmaputra River system:
1. It contributes over 40% of India’s total hydropower generation.
2. The basin is bounded by the Himalayas, the Patkai Hills, and the Assam Hills.
3. Umananda Island, located in the Brahmaputra, is considered the smallest inhabited river island in the world.
4. The Brahmaputra flows through Bhutan for a brief stretch before entering Assam.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Brahmaputra Basin holds around 41% of India’s hydropower potential, not actual generation.
Statement 2 – Correct: The basin is indeed bounded by the Himalayas (north & west), Patkai Hills (east), and Assam Hills (south).
Statement 3 – Correct: Umananda Island in Assam is often cited as the smallest inhabited river island globally.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The main course of the Brahmaputra does not flow through Bhutan. However, some of its tributaries, such as the Manas and Wang Chhu rivers, do originate or flow through Bhutan before joining the Brahmaputra in Assam. The main river flows through Tibet (China), India (Arunachal Pradesh and Assam), and Bangladesh.

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Q5. With reference to the Indian states and union territories, which of the following form part of the Brahmaputra River Basin?
1. Mizoram
2. West Bengal
3. Tripura
4. Sikkim
5. Nagaland
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
(b) 2, 4, and 5 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

Explanation:

The Brahmaputra River Basin in India includes the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, West Bengal, and Sikkim. There is no credible evidence that Tripura forms part of the Brahmaputra River Basin, whereas Mizoram is inconsistently mentioned— occasionally due to hydel projects, but authoritative sources do not list it as a major part of the basin proper.

1. Mizoram: Not included in the main basin by authoritative sources.
2. West Bengal: Included
3. Tripura: Not included
4. Sikkim: Included
5. Nagaland: Included

Correct Answer: (b) 2, 4, and 5 only

Q6. With reference to the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (KMMTTP), arrange the following locations in the correct order of transit from India to the Northeast via Myanmar:
1. Sittwe
2. Kolkata
3. Zorinpui
4. Paletwa
Select the correct sequence:
(a) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
(b) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(c) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3
(d) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3

Explanation:

Step 1: Kolkata (India) – Starting point of the sea route.
Step 2: Sittwe (Myanmar) – Arrival port on the Rakhine coast via Bay of Bengal.
Step 3: Paletwa (Myanmar) – Reached from Sittwe through inland water transport along Kaladan River.
Step 4: Zorinpui (Mizoram, India) – Connected by road from Paletwa and forms the border crossing into India.

So, the correct route is: Kolkata → Sittwe → Paletwa → Zorinpui.

Correct Answer: (a) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (KMMTTP):
1. It connects Kolkata with the Northeast via a route that bypasses both the Siliguri Corridor and Bangladesh.
2. The inland waterway segment of the project lies entirely within Indian territory.
3. Zorinpui is the designated land border crossing point between India and Myanmar for this corridor.
4. The road segment from Paletwa to Zorinpui is the longest stretch in the entire corridor.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: The main objective of KMMTTP is to bypass both the Siliguri Corridor and Bangladesh, reducing strategic vulnerability and logistical delays.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: The inland waterway segment (Sittwe to Paletwa, about 158km) lies entirely within Myanmar, not in India. Goods travel by sea from Kolkata to Sittwe (Myanmar), then by river to Paletwa (Myanmar).
Statement 3 – Correct: Zorinpui in Mizoram is the designated land crossing point into India.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Paletwa–Zorinpui road segment is about 109–110 km. The longest segment is the sea route from Kolkata to Sittwe, which is approximately 539–540 km.

Correct Answer: (b) Only two

Q8. Which of the following would most likely qualify as Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs) under WTO jurisprudence?
1. A requirement that imported goods meet domestic eco-label standards
2. A temporary safeguard duty on a sudden import surge
3. Licensing rules that delay market entry for foreign firms
4. Health certifications required only from selected exporting countries
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

1. Eco-label requirement: This is a classic NTB, as it involves making imported goods subject to technical/eco-labelling regulations which can restrict trade if they are applied unreasonably or discriminate against foreign products. These are covered under the WTO’s Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) Agreement and are often cited as NTBs if they impede market access.

2. Safeguard duty: Safeguard duties are “contingent” trade remedies explicitly regulated by the WTO Agreement on Safeguards. While they are non-tariff measures in the sense that they’re not permanent customs duties, under WTO jurisprudence, they are generally classed separately from NTBs and are considered a form of “trade remedy” rather than a typical NTB. They are temporary and taken in response to serious injury, not as a standard trade restriction.

3. Licensing delays: Licensing requirements for imports—especially when they are administratively burdensome or selectively applied—are frequently classified as NTBs. Such measures can delay or restrict imports without imposing tariffs and are recognized under WTO agreements as classic NTBs.

4. Discriminatory health certifications When countries impose health (sanitary/phytosanitary) certification selectively, not on all trading partners equally, it violates non-discrimination principles and is considered an NTB. These can be challenged under the WTO’s SPS Agreement if discriminatory or overly trade-restrictive.

Correct Answer: (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

Q9. Consider the following statements:
I. Quasi-ballistic missiles fly at lower altitudes and can perform in-flight maneuvers.
II. Pralay is an indigenously developed solid-propellant quasi-ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Explanation:

Statement I is correct — quasi-ballistic missiles are designed to fly at lower altitudes and execute maneuvers mid-flight, making them harder to intercept.

Statement II is also correct — Pralay is developed by DRDO and uses solid propellant with quasi-ballistic characteristics.

Correct Answer: (c) Both I and II

Pralay Missile Tests Enhance India’s Strike Capability

India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently carried out back-to-back successful test launches of the ‘Pralay’ missile from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island, located off the coast of Odisha.

The ‘Pralay’ missile is a domestically developed, solid-fuel, short-range surface-to-surface missile engineered for high-precision strikes. It is equipped with sophisticated guidance and navigation systems that ensure exceptional accuracy in hitting targets.

Designed to deliver a payload ranging from 500 to 1,000 kilograms, Pralay has an operational range between 150 and 500 kilometers. It is capable of carrying diverse warhead configurations, enabling it to engage a wide array of targets, thereby strengthening India’s tactical deterrence posture.

The missile has been developed primarily by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in Hyderabad, with substantial contributions from other DRDO laboratories, particularly those based in Pune.

Unlike conventional ballistic missiles that follow a high-arching trajectory, quasi-ballistic missiles like Pralay travel at lower altitudes and are capable of mid-course maneuvers. This unique flight profile makes them more evasive and difficult for enemy air defense systems to intercept.

Q10. With reference to Rajendra Chola I, consider the following statements:
1. He assumed the title Kadaram Kondan after defeating the Palas of Bengal.
2. He was the first Indian ruler to undertake overseas naval expeditions to Southeast Asia.
3. The city of Gangaikondacholapuram was established to commemorate his southern victories.
4. He built a temple in Gangaikondacholapuram modeled on the Brihadisvara Temple of Thanjavur.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Explanation

Incorrect. Rajendra Chola I assumed the title “Kadaram Kondan” after his Southeast Asian naval expedition where he conquered Kadaram (modern Kedah in Malaysia). His defeat of the Palas of Bengal led to the title “Gangaikonda” (“Conqueror of the Ganges”) and the founding of Gangaikondacholapuram, not “Kadaram Kondan”.

Correct. Rajendra Chola I is widely regarded as the first major Indian ruler to launch successful overseas naval expeditions and military campaigns to Southeast Asia, conquering parts of Srivijaya and others in the early 11th century.

Incorrect. Gangaikondacholapuram was established to commemorate his northern victories, specifically his successful campaign up to the Ganges and defeat of the Pala kings.

Correct. The Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholapuram, built by Rajendra Chola I, was indeed modeled on (though smaller than and more refined compared to) the earlier Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur built by his father.

Only two of the four statements are correct.
Correct Answer: (b) Only two