Skip to content
Home » Current Affairs Quiz » UPSC Prelims Quiz: June 22, 2025

UPSC Prelims Quiz: June 22, 2025

Q1. With reference to India’s position on the Global Methane Pledge (GMP), consider the following statements:

1. India has not joined the GMP due to concerns over the shift in focus from carbon dioxide to methane.

2. India’s major methane emissions are linked to agriculture and livestock, sectors dominated by small and marginal farmers.

3. India has taken no initiative to mitigate methane emissions due to its exclusion from the Global Methane Pledge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: India declined the GMP mainly due to concerns that it may divert focus from CO₂, which has a longer atmospheric lifespan and is more relevant to industrialised nations.
  • Statement 2 is correct: In India, methane is predominantly emitted from rice cultivation and livestock, both key livelihood sources for small and marginal farmers.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India is taking steps to reduce methane, e.g., under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture, and through rice cultivation reforms.

Answer: (a). 1 and 2 only

Q2. With reference to methane as a greenhouse gas (GHG), consider the following statements:

1. Methane is more efficient at trapping radiation than carbon dioxide.

2. Methane remains in the atmosphere for about 100 years, similar to carbon dioxide.

3. Cutting methane emissions can result in faster climate benefits compared to cutting carbon dioxide emissions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Methane is significantly more potent than CO₂ in trapping heat over a 20-year period.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Methane has a much shorter lifespan (~12 years), while CO₂ can persist for over a century.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Due to its short lifespan and high potency, reducing methane can yield near-term climate benefits.

Answer: (c) — 1 and 3 only

Q3. Consider the following initiatives:

1. Global Methane Pledge (GMP)

2. Methane Alert and Response System (MARS)

3. Oil and Gas Decarbonisation Charter (ODGC)

4. Declaration on Reducing Methane from Organic Waste

Which of the above were launched or endorsed at a COP session?

  • (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
  • (b) 1 and 4 only
  • (c) 2, 3, and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:

  • GMP: Launched at COP26.
  • MARS: Introduced by UNEP at COP27.
  • ODGC: Established at COP28.
  • Declaration on Reducing Methane from Organic Waste: Endorsed at COP29 in Baku.

Answer: (d), 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q4. With reference to methane as a greenhouse gas (GHG), consider the following statements:

1) Methane has a longer atmospheric lifespan than carbon dioxide.

2) Methane accounts for more than half of the global warming attributed to GHGs.

3) Methane is among the gases listed under the Kyoto Protocol for emission reduction.

4) Methane has only anthropogenic sources such as agriculture and fossil fuel usage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 3 only
  • (c) 2 and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Methane has a shorter lifespan (around 12 years) than CO₂ (around 100 years).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Methane is responsible for about one-third of global warming, not more than half.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Methane is one of the six GHGs listed under the Kyoto Protocol.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Methane has both natural (e.g., wetlands, termites) and anthropogenic sources (e.g., agriculture, fossil fuels).

Answer: (b), 3 only

Q5. With reference to recent trends in global and regional temperature rise, consider the following statements:

1. The global average temperature in 2024 exceeded pre‑industrial levels by more than 1.5°C.

2. India's average temperature in 2024 was about 1.5°C higher than its 1901–1910 baseline.

3. The year 2024 was the warmest year on record for both the world and India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 3 only
  • (b) 1 and 2 only
  • (c) 2 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Global average temperature in 2024 exceeded 1.5°C over pre-industrial levels.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s temperature rise was about 1.2°C, not 1.5°C, compared to the 1901–1910 average.
  • Statement 3 is correct: 2024 was recorded as the warmest year globally and for India.

Answer: (a), 1 and 3 only

Q6. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Heat risk is influenced not only by temperature levels but also by the degree of exposure and the underlying vulnerabilities of populations.

Statement II:
Heatwaves are prolonged periods of abnormally high temperatures and are the sole driver of heat-related health outcomes.

Statement III:
Even at identical temperature levels, urban poor and outdoor workers may experience higher health impacts due to greater exposure and lack of adaptive capacity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  • (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
  • (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  • (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
  • (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation:

  • Statement I is correct: Heat risk is a broader measure than just temperature and includes exposure and vulnerability, as noted in the CEEW study.
  • Statement II is incorrect: It falsely claims that heatwaves alone are responsible for heat health risks, ignoring heat stress and vulnerabilities.
  • Statement III is correct: It reflects the role of exposure and vulnerability, directly supporting and explaining Statement I.

Answer: (c). Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Understanding Heat Risk Beyond Heatwaves and Heat Stress

Contrary to popular belief, heat risk is not synonymous with heatwaves or heat stress, although all are interrelated climatic phenomena.

Heatwaves and Heat Stress: Distinctions

A heatwave typically refers to an extended spell of unusually high temperatures over a particular geographical area. However, there is no globally standardised definition for what constitutes a heatwave, as it varies by region and climate norms.

Heat stress, in contrast, pertains to physiological strain experienced by living organisms — including humans and animals — when body temperature surpasses 37°C. At this threshold, the body's natural cooling mechanisms, such as sweating, become inefficient, resulting in symptoms like discomfort, muscle cramps, and fatigue. If body temperature escalates beyond 40°C, it may result in heatstroke, a potentially fatal condition.

Heat Risk: A Comprehensive Framework

Heat risk is a broader and more nuanced concept. It represents the likelihood of heat-induced health impacts or mortality arising from extreme thermal conditions. According to a study by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW), heat risk is shaped by three interdependent variables:

  1. Heat intensity, including exacerbating factors such as humidity
  2. Duration and level of exposure to high temperatures
  3. Vulnerability of affected populations, based on socio-economic and physiological factors

This risk-oriented approach allows for a more targeted understanding of which groups or regions are most at risk during extreme heat events.

2024: The Hottest Year on Record

The year 2024 marked an unprecedented climatic milestone — it was the warmest year ever recorded, both globally and within India. Globally, the average annual temperature exceeded the pre-industrial baseline (1850–1900) by more than 1.5°C. In India specifically, temperatures in 2024 were around 1.2°C higher compared to the 1901–1910 mean, signalling a critical escalation in national heat vulnerability.

Q7. With reference to the classification of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), consider the following:

1. The category was introduced by the Bhuria Committee in the 1990s to address intra-tribal disparities.

2. PVTGs are identified based on pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant population, and relative isolation.

3. The term ‘Primitive Tribal Groups’ was officially replaced by ‘PVTGs’ in 2006.

4. Currently, more than 100 tribal communities are designated as PVTGs across India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 3 and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Dhebar Commission (1960–61), not the Bhuria Committee, initiated the concept of more vulnerable tribal groups.
  • Statement 2 is correct: These criteria are officially used for identifying PVTGs.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The term “Primitive Tribal Groups” was officially renamed as “PVTGs” in 2006.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: As of the 2011 Census, only 75 tribal communities have been designated as PVTGs.

Correct Answer: (b)

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA):

1. It was launched from Hazaribagh, Jharkhand, to mark the birth anniversary of Birsa Munda.

2. It is implemented with the convergence of 17 Union ministries.

3. It focuses exclusively on the construction of hostels and tribal museums under the Ministry of Culture.

4. It has a total outlay of over ₹79,000 crore for a five-year period, with a significant portion contributed by the states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  • (a) Only one
  • (b) Only two
  • (c) Only three
  • (d) All four

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: DAJGUA was launched from Hazaribagh in 2024 on Birsa Munda's birth anniversary.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It involves convergence of 17 line ministries.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The focus is broader—covering housing, electrification, livestock and fisheries support—not just museums and hostels.
  • Statement 4 is correct: ₹79,156 crore was allocated, with ₹56,333 crore from the Centre and ₹22,823 crore from states.

Correct Answer: (c)

Q9. With reference to the classification of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), consider the following:

1. The category was introduced by the Bhuria Committee in the 1990s to address intra-tribal disparities.

2. PVTGs are identified based on pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant population, and relative isolation.

3. The term ‘Primitive Tribal Groups’ was officially replaced by ‘PVTGs’ in 2006.

4. Currently, more than 100 tribal communities are designated as PVTGs across India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 3 and 4 only
  • (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Dhebar Commission (1960–61), not the Bhuria Committee, initiated the concept of more vulnerable tribal groups.

Statement 2 is correct: These criteria are officially used for identifying PVTGs.

Statement 3 is correct: The term “Primitive Tribal Groups” was officially renamed as “PVTGs” in 2006.

Statement 4 is incorrect: As of the 2011 Census, only 75 tribal communities have been designated as PVTGs.

Correct Answer: (b)

Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN)

Launch: November 15, 2023 (Janjatiya Gaurav Divas) by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Khunti, Jharkhand.

This mission is dedicated to the welfare of 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) across India.

Inter-Ministerial Implementation

The scheme is coordinated by nine Union Ministries, overseeing 11 key interventions under flagship schemes such as:

  • Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
  • Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana
  • Jal Jeevan Mission

Core Aims

PM-JANMAN aims to enhance the quality of life of PVTG families by ensuring access to:

  • Pucca housing
  • Safe drinking water
  • Sanitation facilities
  • Healthcare and nutritional support
  • Quality education
  • Road and mobile connectivity
  • Sustainable livelihood opportunities

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)

PVTGs are the most marginalised among Scheduled Tribes, facing significant socio-economic disadvantages. Originally known as Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs), the term was revised to PVTGs in 2006 following the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission (1960–61).

Demographic Spread

According to the 2011 Census:

  • India’s ST population: 10.45 crore (8.6%)
  • 75 PVTG communities across 18 states and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands

Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA)

Launch: October 2, 2024 (Gandhi Jayanti) from Hazaribagh, Jharkhand, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

This programme integrates efforts from 17 Central Ministries to promote targeted tribal welfare.

Key Welfare Measures

  • Construction of hostels and rural homes (under PM Awas Yojana)
  • Electrification of remote villages
  • Support for animal husbandry and fisheries

Funding Allocation

Total outlay: ₹79,156 crore over 5 years

  • Central share: ₹56,333 crore
  • State share: ₹22,823 crore

Etymology of the Scheme

“Dharti Aaba” translates to “Father of the Earth” — a tribute to Birsa Munda, the revered tribal leader and freedom fighter.

Birsa Munda: The Legacy

Born: November 15, 1875

He led the Munda Rebellion (Ulgulan) against British colonial rule in the late 19th century, championing tribal rights and land reforms.

Key Reforms:

  • Tenancy Act, 1903: Recognised the traditional khuntkatti land system
  • Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908: Prevented non-tribals from acquiring tribal land

In his honour, Janjatiya Gaurav Divas is celebrated annually on his birth anniversary.

Q10. With reference to Protected Cultivation in agriculture, consider the following statements:

1. It allows regulation of climatic parameters such as temperature and humidity to suit crop needs.

2. Practices such as mulching, raised beds, and drip irrigation are considered part of protected cultivation.

3. Protected cultivation techniques are always used in isolation and not in combination with each other.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  • (a) 1 and 2 only
  • (b) 2 and 3 only
  • (c) 1 and 3 only
  • (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Protected cultivation involves controlling environmental factors like temperature, humidity, and light.

Statement 2 is correct: Mulching, raised beds, and drip irrigation are listed as components of protected cultivation.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The text clearly states that these practices can be used in combination.

Correct Answer: (a)