Q1. Consider the following features regarding the President’s Rule under Article 356:
1. The Constitution provides an explicit maximum duration of three years for the operation of President’s Rule in a State.
2. During President’s Rule, the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved automatically.
3. Parliament assumes the powers of the State Legislature during the operation of President’s Rule.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Article 356(4) limits President’s Rule to three years unless specific conditions apply.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Assembly may be kept in suspended animation instead of being dissolved immediately.
- Statement 3 is correct: Parliament can assume legislative powers of the State under President’s Rule.
Thus, two statements are correct (1 and 3).
Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Q2. In the context of Indian agriculture, which of the following benefits is/are most appropriately associated with the use of mulch films on raised beds under protected cultivation?
1. It increases soil salinity over time by trapping salts near the surface.
2. It suppresses weed growth effectively.
3. It reduces the frequency of irrigation by minimizing moisture loss.
4. It accelerates nitrogen volatilization due to trapped heat.
2. It suppresses weed growth effectively.
3. It reduces the frequency of irrigation by minimizing moisture loss.
4. It accelerates nitrogen volatilization due to trapped heat.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: While in some contexts plastic mulches may concentrate salts, the given passage does not associate mulch use with increased salinity.
- Statement 2 is correct: The passage mentions mulch films eradicate weeds.
- Statement 3 is correct: Mulch maintains soil moisture by minimizing evaporation losses.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: There's no mention of mulch accelerating nitrogen loss; this is not implied or stated in the passage.
Thus, only 2 and 3 are valid according to the passage.
Correct Answer: A
Q3. With reference to the impeachment of a sitting judge of the Supreme Court or High Court, consider the following statements:
1. A motion for impeachment can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
2. The minimum number of members required to support the notice of motion differs for the two Houses.
3. Once the motion is admitted, the judge is suspended from office pending investigation.
2. The minimum number of members required to support the notice of motion differs for the two Houses.
3. Once the motion is admitted, the judge is suspended from office pending investigation.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: A motion for impeachment can be initiated in either House—Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 2 is correct: The motion requires support of 100 members in the Lok Sabha and 50 members in the Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Admission of the motion does not lead to automatic suspension of the judge. The judge continues in office until the full impeachment process is completed and both Houses pass the motion by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting and a majority of the total membership.
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Q4. With reference to emerging geoengineering techniques for climate intervention, consider the following pairs:
Technique: Objective
| Technique | Objective |
|---|---|
| 1. Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) | Reflect incoming solar radiation to reduce global temperatures |
| 2. Marine Cloud Brightening | Increase ocean evaporation to form high-altitude cirrus clouds |
| 3. Carbon Mineralization | Enhance natural weathering to lock atmospheric CO₂ in stable compounds |
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) involves releasing particles (like sulphates) into the stratosphere to reflect sunlight and cool the Earth — a form of solar radiation management.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Marine Cloud Brightening aims to increase the reflectivity (albedo) of low-level marine clouds, not form cirrus clouds. It involves spraying sea salt aerosols to make clouds whiter and more reflective.
- Pair 3 is correctly matched: Carbon Mineralization refers to accelerating the natural process of converting CO₂ into stable carbonates through chemical reactions with minerals like olivine or basalt.
Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Q5. With reference to Nickel, consider the following statements:
1. Nickel is primarily found in nature in the form of carbonates and nitrates.
2. India’s significant reserves of nickel laterite are concentrated in the Sukinda region of Odisha.
3. Indonesia and Australia together hold over 40% of the world’s known nickel reserves.
2. India’s significant reserves of nickel laterite are concentrated in the Sukinda region of Odisha.
3. Indonesia and Australia together hold over 40% of the world’s known nickel reserves.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Nickel does not primarily occur as carbonates and nitrates. It typically occurs as oxides, sulphides, and silicates.
- Statement 2 is correct: India has substantial nickel laterite reserves, especially in Odisha’s Sukinda region, which is known for its rich nickel-bearing laterite deposits.
- Statement 3 is correct: According to current estimates, Indonesia (22%) and Australia (21%) together account for 43% of global nickel reserves.
Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q6. Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Coal-fired thermal power plants are one of the major contributors to ambient PM2.5 levels in India.
Statement II:
Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units help reduce PM2.5 levels by removing sulphur dioxide from flue gas.
Statement III:
Sulphur dioxide released from burning coal reacts in the atmosphere to form secondary particulate matter.
Coal-fired thermal power plants are one of the major contributors to ambient PM2.5 levels in India.
Statement II:
Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units help reduce PM2.5 levels by removing sulphur dioxide from flue gas.
Statement III:
Sulphur dioxide released from burning coal reacts in the atmosphere to form secondary particulate matter.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Studies have shown that a significant portion of India’s ambient PM2.5 pollution is attributable to coal combustion.
- Statement II is correct: FGD units remove SO₂, which is a precursor to secondary PM2.5.
- Statement III is correct: SO₂ reacts in the atmosphere to form secondary particulate matter, contributing to PM2.5 levels.
Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Q7. With reference to India’s trade relations with MERCOSUR, consider the following statements:
1. India’s trade agreement with MERCOSUR is a full-fledged Free Trade Agreement that includes services and investment.
2. MERCOSUR, which includes countries like Brazil and Argentina, functions as a customs union and follows the European Union model.
3. MERCOSUR is among the top three largest integrated markets globally, after the EU and NAFTA.
2. MERCOSUR, which includes countries like Brazil and Argentina, functions as a customs union and follows the European Union model.
3. MERCOSUR is among the top three largest integrated markets globally, after the EU and NAFTA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: India signed a Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) with MERCOSUR in 2004, which came into force in 2009. A PTA involves reduced tariffs on selected goods, and does not cover services or investments like a full Free Trade Agreement (FTA) would.
- Statement 2 is correct: MERCOSUR was formed in 1991 and became a customs union in 1995. It is inspired by the European Union model of regional integration.
- Statement 3 is correct: MERCOSUR is considered the third-largest integrated market in the world, after the EU and NAFTA (now USMCA).
Correct Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only
Q8. With reference to the ‘Fully Accessible Route’ (FAR) introduced by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. It allows non-resident investors to invest in specified Indian government securities without any investment cap.
2. The primary objective of the FAR is to attract more foreign investment into India’s government bond market.
3. The FAR was introduced in 2023 as a temporary measure to stabilise the rupee during a period of high inflation.
2. The primary objective of the FAR is to attract more foreign investment into India’s government bond market.
3. The FAR was introduced in 2023 as a temporary measure to stabilise the rupee during a period of high inflation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: FAR allows non-resident investors to invest in specified G-secs without any investment limits.
- Statement 2 is correct: The core objective of FAR is to increase foreign participation in India’s government bond market.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: FAR was introduced in March 2020, not in 2023, and it is not a temporary measure. Its goal is long-term market development, not short-term rupee stabilization.
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Q9. In the context of foreign investment in India’s bond market, consider the following statements:
1. The Fully Accessible Route (FAR) allows non-resident investors to invest in certain government securities without restrictions.
2. Narrowing bond yield spreads between developed and emerging economies may discourage foreign investment in Indian bonds.
2. Narrowing bond yield spreads between developed and emerging economies may discourage foreign investment in Indian bonds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the two
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: FAR permits non-residents to invest in designated G-secs without investment caps.
- Statement 2 is correct: A narrow yield spread lowers adjusted returns for foreign investors, making Indian bonds relatively less attractive.
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Q10. Which of the following won the Food Planet Prize 2025 for developing a low-emission, plasma-based green fertiliser technology?
(a) Adaptive Symbiotic Technologies
(b) NitroCapt
(c) Semion
(d) Virtual Irrigation Academy
Explanation:
- NitroCapt, a Sweden-based startup, won the Food Planet Prize 2025 for its fossil-free nitrogen fertiliser technology using plasma and air.
- The technology avoids traditional fossil-fuel-intensive methods and relies on green electricity to fix nitrogen from the air.
Correct Answer: (b)
Food Planet Prize 2025
The Food Planet Prize for 2025 was awarded to NitroCapt, a Swedish start-up that has developed an innovative low-emission fertiliser using air and plasma, offering a sustainable alternative to conventional nitrogen fertilisers. The company currently operates a pilot facility in Uppsala, located near Stockholm. Its technology is being trialled both at the Swedish University of Agricultural Sciences and on the farm of company co-founder Forsberg.
In addition to NitroCapt, five other global initiatives were shortlisted as finalists for the award, each offering transformative approaches to sustainable food systems:
- Adaptive Symbiotic Technologies (United States): This project employs beneficial fungal endophytes and microbes to enhance crop resilience against climate-related stress, reduce dependency on synthetic fertilisers, and improve agricultural productivity.
- Astungkara Way (Indonesia): Focused on revamping traditional rice farming, this approach integrates regenerative agricultural practices to increase yields while promoting environmental sustainability and improving the economic conditions of farmers.
- Pride on Our Plates (China): Aimed at reducing large-scale food waste in China’s catering industry, this initiative supports small businesses by providing them with data-driven tools and behavioural strategies to minimise waste.
- Semion (Argentina): This method combats growing pesticide resistance by leveraging plant-based defence mechanisms, offering a natural alternative that sustains crop yields while reducing chemical exposure.
- Virtual Irrigation Academy (Australia): This initiative provides smallholder farmers with advanced soil moisture sensors, helping them optimise water usage and enhance food production efficiency.