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Home » Current Affairs Quiz » UPSC Prelims Quiz: June 25, 2025

UPSC Prelims Quiz: June 25, 2025

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the relationship between the RBI's policy rates and market interest rates:
I. A sustained fall in the weighted average call rate below the repo rate suggests the market is flush with liquidity.
II. When the call rate hovers close to the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate, it indicates that the liquidity is being parked more with the RBI rather than lent in the market.
III. A call rate below the repo rate implies that banks are accessing funds at a rate higher than what the RBI intends as its operative target.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
The call money rate is the overnight rate at which banks borrow or lend to one another.
When this rate remains consistently below the repo rate, it reflects excess liquidity in the system. Banks do not need to borrow from RBI (via repo) because cheaper funds are available in the market.

• Statement II – Correct:
The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor.
If the call rate hovers near the SDF, it implies banks have surplus funds and prefer to park them with RBI (at SDF rate) instead of lending, which reflects weak credit demand or very high liquidity.

• Statement III – Incorrect:
If the call rate is below the repo rate, it means banks are borrowing at lower, not higher, rates than the repo.
This is favorable to borrowers and contrary to RBI’s intent if the repo rate was meant to be the operative benchmark. So the statement misrepresents the relationship.

• Answer: (a) I and II only

Q2. In the context of recent monetary conditions, which of the following implications can be logically inferred from a prolonged situation where the call rate remains below the repo rate and close to the SDF rate?
I. The RBI may need to tighten liquidity to restore the repo rate as the effective policy rate.
II. Banks may not prefer to borrow from the RBI under repo auctions during such times.
III. This scenario indicates that the RBI is deliberately encouraging banks to lend at lower rates.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
If the call rate persistently stays below the repo, the transmission mechanism of monetary policy weakens.
The RBI might absorb liquidity (tighten) through tools like VRRR auctions, CRR hike, or OMOs to push the call rate back toward the repo, which is meant to be the operative rate.

• Statement II – Correct:
In such a liquidity surplus situation, banks have no incentive to borrow at the repo rate, which is higher than the market rate.
So they avoid RBI’s repo windows and rely on interbank or excess funds.

• Statement III – Incorrect:
The situation is not necessarily RBI’s deliberate policy.
The RBI may be concerned when call rates deviate from the repo rate for too long—it can distort monetary signals.
So this is not an intended encouragement, but often a side effect of persistent surplus liquidity.

• Answer: (c) I and II only

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding coffee cultivation and export in India:
I. Karnataka alone accounts for more than 65% of India's total coffee production.
II. Coffee is cultivated in parts of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.
III. Over 70% of India’s coffee production is exported, with Italy being one of the major destinations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
Karnataka consistently contributes 65–70% of India’s coffee production, especially Arabica and Robusta varieties, mainly from districts like Chikkamagaluru, Kodagu, and Hassan.

• Statement II – Correct:
Coffee in India is cultivated in the Western Ghats (Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu) and also in Eastern Ghats regions such as Araku Valley (Andhra Pradesh) and Koraput district (Odisha). This list is precise and matches official Coffee Board data.

• Statement III – Correct:
India exports over 70% of its total coffee output.
Top importers include Italy, Germany, Russia, and Belgium—with Italy consistently being among the top 3.

• Answer: (d) I, II and III

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding recent developments in nano fertilisers by IFFCO:
I. IFFCO launched the world's first Nano Urea in 2021, followed by the launch of Nano DAP in 2023.
II. In 2025, IFFCO signed an agreement to set up its first overseas nano fertiliser plant in Brazil, in partnership with a Brazilian company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
IFFCO launched the world’s first Nano Urea in 2021, followed by Nano DAP in 2023. Both are considered landmark innovations in sustainable and precision agriculture.

• Statement II – Correct:
In 2025, IFFCO announced the setting up of its first overseas nano fertiliser plant in Brazil, through a partnership with Nanofert, a Brazilian firm. This marks a significant step in expanding India’s agri-tech footprint globally.

• Answer: (c) Both I and II

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Subarnarekha River:
I. It originates in Jharkhand and flows through Odisha and West Bengal before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
II. Hundru Falls, one of the major waterfalls in eastern India, is located on this river.
III. Subarnarekha has been notified as a National Waterway under The National Waterways Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
The Subarnarekha River originates near Piska village close to Ranchi, Jharkhand, and flows through Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

• Statement II – Correct:
Hundru Falls, a well-known tourist site and waterfall in Jharkhand, is located on the Subarnarekha River.

• Statement III – Correct:
The Subarnarekha Waterway has been declared as National Waterway–96 under the National Waterways Act, 2016.

• Answer: (d) I, II and III

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding digital tools used for monitoring big cats in India:
I. CaTRAT uses AI to classify species from camera trap images and has been applied in snow leopard landscapes.
II. M-STrIPES supports GPS-based patrolling but does not incorporate photographic evidence.
III. SIMBA and E-GujForest are used in Gujarat for real-time lion monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
CaTRAT (Camera Trap data Repository and Analysis Tool) uses artificial intelligence to classify species from camera trap images. It has been applied in snow leopard habitats in the Himalayas.

• Statement II – Incorrect:
M-STrIPES does support GPS-based patrolling and integrates photographic evidence as part of habitat and population monitoring.

• Statement III – Correct:
SIMBA and E-GujForest are AI-based platforms deployed in Gujarat for lion conservation and surveillance, including real-time monitoring and alert systems.

• Answer: (b) I and III only

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the New India Literacy Programme (ULLAS):
I. It aims to impart basic literacy and numeracy to individuals aged 15 years and above.
II. It is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented only through offline learning methods.
III. Tripura has become the third state to be declared fully literate under this programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
Under ULLAS (New India Literacy Programme), the objective is to educate non-literates aged 15 years and above, with a target of covering 5 crore learners by 2027.

• Statement II – Incorrect:
ULLAS is implemented in a hybrid mode, involving both online and offline methods (e.g., volunteer-led classes, mobile apps, and digital platforms).

• Statement III – Correct:
As per recent reports, Tripura has been declared the third fully literate state, after Mizoram and Goa, having achieved 95% literacy among those aged 15 and above under the ULLAS programme.

• Answer: (c) I and III only

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the geographical and strategic profile of Qatar:
I. Qatar shares land borders with both Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates, and has maritime boundaries with Iran and Bahrain.
II. The country has no perennial rivers or natural freshwater lakes, and a significant share of its freshwater comes from desalination.
III. The al-Udeid Air Base, located near the Dukhan hills, is considered the largest U.S. military installation in the Persian Gulf region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) II only

Explanation:

• Statement I – Incorrect:
Qatar shares a land border only with Saudi Arabia — not with the UAE.
The claim about land borders with both Saudi Arabia and UAE is factually incorrect, although Qatar has maritime boundaries with Iran, Bahrain, and the UAE.

• Statement II – Correct:
Qatar has no perennial rivers or lakes and depends heavily on desalination for its freshwater supply. Groundwater and rainfall contribute minimally due to the arid climate.

• Statement III – Incorrect:
The al-Udeid Air Base is located southwest of Doha, not near the Dukhan hills (which are to the northwest).

• Answer: (d) II only

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the IBAT Alliance and its role in global biodiversity conservation:
I. The IBAT Alliance includes organisations such as IUCN, UNEP-WCMC, Conservation International, and BirdLife International.
II. One of its key initiatives involves maintaining global datasets such as the IUCN Red List and the World Database of Protected Areas.
III. The Alliance functions under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct:
As of the June 2025 update, the IBAT Alliance is made up of four major conservation organisations:
◦ BirdLife International
◦ Conservation International
◦ IUCN
◦ UNEP-WCMC (United Nations Environment Programme World Conservation Monitoring Centre)

• Statement II – Correct:
The Alliance helps fund and maintain three critical biodiversity datasets:
◦ The World Database on Protected Areas (WDPA)
◦ The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species
◦ The World Database of Key Biodiversity Areas (WDKBA)

• Statement III – Incorrect:
The IBAT Alliance is not an entity under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), nor is it headquartered in Geneva.
While the member organisations engage with CBD processes, IBAT is a standalone collaborative platform, and UNEP-WCMC, one of its key partners, is based in Cambridge, UK — not Geneva.

• Answer: (a) I and II only

Q10. With reference to India’s Nuclear Energy Mission and the development of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), consider the following statements:
1. India’s Nuclear Energy Mission includes plans to develop both indigenously designed and internationally licensed SMR technologies.
2. SMRs are envisaged as a potential solution for ensuring distributed base-load power, particularly in regions with limited grid connectivity.
3. The classification of SMRs is fixed globally by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) as reactors with a capacity strictly less than 300 MWe.
4. The allocation for the development of SMRs under Budget 2025–26 exceeds ₹15,000 crore.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
India’s Nuclear Energy Mission emphasizes indigenous development, but also allows room for collaboration or licensing of international designs. This mix of strategies is consistent with

Statement 2 – Correct:
One of the main advantages of SMRs is their modularity and deployment flexibility, making them well-suited for distributed power supply, including in remote or off-grid areas. This aligns with both India’s energy access goals and global trends.

Statement 3 – Incorrect:
The IAEA does not define SMRs with a rigid upper cap of “strictly less than 300 MWe.” Instead, it provides a range-based guideline, usually up to 300 MWe, with room for country-specific variations.

Statement 4 – Correct:
Budget 2025–26 allocates ₹20,000 crore towards SMR development — clearly above ₹15,000 crore.

Answer: (a)

Bihar to Host First Atomic Power Plant Under New Nuclear Energy Mission

Bihar is set to be among the first six states in India to establish an atomic power plant under the recently launched Nuclear Energy Mission. This development marks a significant shift in India's clean energy roadmap.

On June 24, 2025, Union Power Minister Manohar Lal Khattar announced that the Centre had approved a nuclear power facility in Bihar based on Small Modular Reactor (SMR) technology. This initiative follows a key allocation of ₹20,000 crore for the mission in the Union Budget 2025–26, aiming to expand access to sustainable and dependable nuclear power across the nation while improving regional energy resilience.

What Are Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)?

SMRs represent a newer class of nuclear reactors designed to be smaller, more cost-effective, and adaptable compared to traditional reactors. Their advanced safety features and modular design make them ideal for integration into smaller power grids and remote locations.

India is increasingly turning to SMRs as a cornerstone of its broader energy transition strategy. These compact reactors, with capacities from below 30 MWe to over 300 MWe, offer a versatile energy option. Factory-based manufacturing of SMRs helps reduce construction timelines and project costs—making them suitable for both urban and isolated regions.

India’s strength in operating Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) provides a solid foundation for developing indigenous SMRs. Their integration could support land-efficient power generation, lower fossil fuel use, and further India’s Paris Agreement commitments.

Government Measures to Expand Nuclear Energy Capacity

The Indian government is actively pursuing clean energy goals by expanding nuclear power capacity from the current 8,180 MW to 22,480 MW by 2031–32. This includes:

  • Ongoing construction of 10 new reactors totaling 8,000 MW across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Preliminary work on an additional 10 reactors scheduled for phased development by 2031–32.
  • In-principle clearance for a 6 x 1208 MW nuclear project at Kovvada, Andhra Pradesh, in collaboration with the United States.

A significant milestone was achieved on September 19, 2024, when Unit-7 of the Rajasthan Atomic Power Project (RAPP-7) achieved criticality. This event marked the beginning of a controlled nuclear fission reaction in one of India’s largest and fully indigenous reactors—highlighting India's advancement toward nuclear self-reliance and clean energy leadership.