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Home » UPSC Prelims Quiz » UPSC Prelims Quiz: November 04, 2025

UPSC Prelims Quiz: November 04, 2025

Q1. Which among the following are explicitly recognised elements in the substantive “package” of issues addressed by the BBNJ Agreement?

1. Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs) and associated benefit-sharing

2. Area-Based Management Tools (ABMTs) including Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) for ABNJ

3. Global prohibition on commercial fishing in ABNJ

4. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) obligations for activities in ABNJ

5. Transfer of marine technology and capacity-building for developing States

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)

1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b)

1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c)

2, 3 and 5 only

(d)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Core package of the BBNJ Agreement: It explicitly addresses four substantive elements — (i) Marine Genetic Resources (MGRs) and benefit sharing, (ii) Area-Based Management Tools (ABMTs) including Marine Protected Areas (MPAs), (iii) Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs), and (iv) Capacity-building and transfer of marine technology for developing States.

Incorrect element: The Agreement does not impose a global prohibition on commercial fishing in Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction (ABNJ); hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Answer: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Q2. With reference to the ‘CAIPEEX’ project in India, consider the following statements:

1. It investigates the role of aerosols in cloud formation and rainfall.

2. It is implemented by the Indian Space Research Organisation.

3. Its field experiments were conducted in the windward region of the Western Ghats.

4. It forms a part of India’s Deep Ocean Mission.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

(a)

1 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

3 only

(d)

4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: CAIPEEX (Cloud Aerosol Interaction and Precipitation Enhancement Experiment) studies aerosol–cloud–rainfall interactions and assesses rainfall enhancement potential through cloud seeding.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: It is led by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Field experiments were conducted mainly in the rain-shadow (leeward) region of the Western Ghats, not the windward side.

Statement 4 – Incorrect: The project is independent of the Deep Ocean Mission and focuses on atmospheric and precipitation sciences.

Answer: (a) 1 only
Q3. With reference to geoengineering or climate intervention technologies, consider the following statements:

1. Stratospheric aerosol injection aims to cool the planet by reducing incoming solar radiation.

2. Ocean iron fertilization is primarily designed to neutralize ocean acidification.

3. Marine cloud brightening involves dispersing soot particles to absorb solar energy.

4. Cirrus cloud thinning seeks to increase longwave radiation trapping in the upper atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

(a)

1 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

3 only

(d)

4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) releases reflective particles such as sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere to reflect a portion of incoming solar radiation, thereby cooling the Earth.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: Ocean iron fertilization aims to stimulate phytoplankton growth to enhance CO₂ absorption from the atmosphere, not to neutralize ocean acidification.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Marine cloud brightening involves dispersing sea-salt particles to increase cloud albedo (reflectivity), not soot particles to absorb heat.

Statement 4 – Incorrect: Cirrus cloud thinning seeks to reduce high-level cloud cover to allow more longwave radiation to escape into space, resulting in a net cooling effect rather than increased heat trapping.

Answer: (a) 1 only
Q4. With reference to Articles 1 to 4 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. A Bill to alter the name of an existing State under Article 3 may be introduced in Parliament only after the President refers it to the State legislature concerned for its views and only after such period has expired.

2. Under Article 2, Parliament may admit a new State into the Union on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit, even if that territory was never previously a part of India.

3. Article 4 provides that any law made under Articles 2 or 3 will be treated as a constitutional amendment under Article 368 if it seeks to amend the First Schedule.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)

1 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

1 and 2

(d)

2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: Article 3’s proviso specifies that no Bill for forming a new State or altering the area, boundary, or name of a State shall be introduced in Parliament unless it is recommended by the President and referred to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views, and the period specified for this has expired.

Statement 2 – Correct: Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit into the Union or establish new States “on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.” It does not restrict such admission only to territories already part of India, allowing flexibility in admitting external territories.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Article 4 explicitly provides that any law made under Articles 2 or 3 “shall not be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution” for the purposes of Article 368, even if it alters the First or Fourth Schedules.

Answer: (c) 1 and 2
Assertion (A): Under Article 3, the definition of “State” in clauses (a)–(e) includes Union Territories, but in the proviso it does not include Union Territories.

Reason (R): This asymmetric definition is intended to enable Parliament to combine or constitute new States or Union Territories, while ensuring that consultation (via the proviso) applies only to States and not to Union Territories.

Which of the following is correct?

(a)

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

(b)

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.

(c)

A is true, R is false.

(d)

A is false, R is true.

Explanation
  • The assertion is true: Explanation I of Article 3 states that in clauses (a)–(e), “State” includes a Union territory; but in the proviso, “State” does not include a Union territory.
  • The reason is also correct: This asymmetric definition allows Parliament flexibility in reorganising both States and Union Territories, while ensuring that the consultation requirement applies only to States. Since most Union Territories lack fully equivalent legislatures, this asymmetry ensures administrative efficiency. Constitutional commentators have observed that this serves the dual purpose of enabling both internal and external territorial readjustments.
Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.