1. The Wassenaar Arrangement was the first multilateral export control regime to include intrusion software and cyber-surveillance systems in its control lists.
2. Decisions adopted under the Wassenaar Arrangement are non-binding and implemented through national laws at the discretion of member states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: In 2013, the Wassenaar Arrangement became the first export control regime to include intrusion software and network-surveillance technologies in its dual-use control list. Although later frameworks—like the EU Dual-Use Regulation (2021)—adopted similar provisions, Wassenaar introduced this expansion first.
Statement 2 – Correct: The Arrangement is not legally binding; it is a voluntary, consensus-based mechanism. Each of the 42 participating states (including India since 2017) enforces the agreed control lists through its own national export-control laws (e.g., India’s SCOMET list).
• A multilateral export control regime on conventional arms and dual-use goods/technologies.
• Established: 1996 at Wassenaar, Netherlands as a successor to the Cold War-era CoCom system.
• Nature: Not a treaty; operates through a voluntary, consensus-based coordination mechanism.
• Created to promote transparency and responsibility in sensitive technology transfers.
• Headquarters: Vienna, Austria, with a small permanent Secretariat.
• Total: 42 participating states.
• Major powers: United States, United Kingdom, France, Germany, Russia, Japan.
• Emerging economies: India, South Africa, Mexico, Republic of Korea.
• Prevent destabilizing accumulation of arms and sensitive technologies.
• Stop diversion to terrorist groups, rogue regimes, or proliferation networks.
• Maintain a balance between national security and legitimate trade or innovation.
• Control Lists: Dual-Use Goods & Technologies List and Munitions List.
• Information Exchange: Member countries report transfers and denials every six months.
• Decision-Making: Entirely by consensus, ensuring national discretion.
• Expanded Scope: Since 2013, includes intrusion software and cyber-surveillance tools.
• Joined: 2017, strengthening India’s role in global non-proliferation regimes.
• Integration: Incorporated Wassenaar’s control lists into India’s SCOMET framework (Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies).
• The Andaman Basin is a back-arc basin formed due to the subduction of the Indian Plate beneath the Burma (Myanmar) Plate, similar to Sumatra–Java arc tectonics.
• Plate subduction: The Andaman-Nicobar-Sumatra Subduction Zone is a convergent margin where the Indian/Australian Plate is obliquely subducting beneath the Burmese/Sunda Plate. This process created a series of tectonic elements, including the Andaman Trench, a volcanic arc, and the back-arc basin.
• Natural gas: The complex geological setting, including the presence of thick sedimentary layers from sources like the Irrawaddy River and structural traps, makes the basin conducive to hydrocarbon accumulation. Oil India’s recent discovery of natural gas was made in an offshore block within this basin.
Reason (R): The mosaic pattern (shola + grassland) arises due to climatic constraints that favour grasses on exposed slopes and evergreen stunted trees in protected hollows.
Which of the following is correct?
• Statement A is correct: shola patches occur in sheltered valleys, while grasslands occupy upper slopes.
• The reason is also accepted in ecological literature: climatic stress (e.g. frost, wind, soil) limits forest expansion on exposed slopes, favoring grasses there; protected hollows allow stunted evergreen trees to persist.
• Moreover, R offers the ecological mechanism behind A.
1. With these additions, the number of species in the genus Indophanes globally became eleven.
2. These new species were discovered from Kerala in the Western Ghats region.
3. Prior to this finding, the genus Indophanes had not been recorded from India.
4. After this discovery, the total number of known antlion species in Kerala increased to twelve.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: The formal taxonomic paper notes that with the description of Indophanes keralaensis and Indophanes sahyadriensis, the global count of Indophanes species reached eleven.
Statement 2 – Correct: Both species were reported from Kerala’s Western Ghats — one from Siruvani (Palakkad District) and the other from Idukki.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: The genus Indophanes had already been reported from India earlier; these findings only expanded the known distribution.
Statement 4 – Correct: The total number of antlion species recorded in Kerala now stands at twelve.
1. India–EFTA TEPA is the first Indian Free Trade Agreement to include a binding commitment on investment and job creation by partner countries.
2. The enforcement clause of TEPA allows India to suspend or withdraw tariff concessions if the EFTA nations fail to meet their investment and employment pledges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: TEPA is India’s first FTA to explicitly include a binding investment and job creation pledge from partner countries — USD 100 billion investment over 15 years and 1 million jobs in India.
Statement 2 – Correct: TEPA incorporates a novel enforcement mechanism empowering India to suspend or withdraw tariff concessions if EFTA partners fail to deliver on their commitments within agreed timelines.
Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein — all members of the EFTA bloc.
• EFTA countries will invest USD 100 billion in India over 15 years.
• This is expected to create 1 million direct jobs.
• India can suspend tariff concessions if these binding commitments are not fulfilled — a unique enforcement mechanism in global FTAs.
• TEPA includes 14 chapters covering:
→ Market access for goods and services
→ Investment promotion and facilitation
→ Rules of origin and trade facilitation
→ Intellectual property and sustainable development
→ Legal and institutional provisions
• Marks the first-ever FTA where India’s partner nations have made a legal commitment to long-term investment and employment generation.
• Promotes foreign direct investment (FDI) with focus on skill development and technology transfer.
• Provides greater market access to Indian exporters in EFTA countries, particularly in the services and non-agricultural sectors, along with opportunities for mutual recognition of professional qualifications.
1. The creation of the PRB seeks to balance operational autonomy in regulating payment systems with the RBI’s monetary and supervisory authority.
2. Unlike the previous BPSS, the PRB’s inclusion of external experts ensures that decisions are not solely guided by central banking considerations.
3. By being a statutory board under the PSSA, the PRB functions independently of the RBI’s broader institutional framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1: Correct. The PRB model reflects a “hybrid autonomy” approach — independent in payment regulation, but structurally embedded in the RBI to ensure monetary stability and systemic coordination.
Statement 2: Correct. The inclusion of three government-nominated external experts (law, IT, finance) was specifically recommended to prevent excessive RBI dominance in payment regulation, promoting plural perspectives.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The PRB is within the RBI framework — not independent of it — though it has enhanced decision-making autonomy. It functions under the PSSA but remains institutionally part of the RBI.
1. The Act treats settlement finality as a prerequisite for systemic stability because it prevents a chain of defaults across participants.
2. “Authorization” under the PSSA implies both entry regulation and ongoing supervisory control by the RBI.
3. Once a payment system is authorized, the RBI cannot revoke or suspend that authorization except through judicial process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: Settlement finality ensures that once funds are settled, they cannot be unwound — a foundational principle for payment system resilience and trust, especially in RTGS and UPI networks.
Statement 2 – Correct: The “authorization” mechanism gives RBI both entry-gate power (who can operate a payment system) and ongoing oversight to ensure systemic safety and consumer protection.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Section 8 of the PSSA empowers the RBI to revoke or suspend authorization in public interest, systemic risk, or for violations — no judicial process is required.
• Constituted under Section 3 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 (PSS Act).
• The Department of Payment and Settlement Systems (DPSS) functions under the PRB’s supervision.
• Chairperson: Governor of the RBI (ex officio).
• Members:
→ Deputy Governor (in charge of Payment and Settlement Systems) – ex officio.
→ One RBI officer nominated by the Central Board – ex officio.
→ Three Central Government nominees with expertise in payment systems, IT, cybersecurity, or law.
• Permanent Invitee: Principal Legal Adviser of RBI.
• Experts may be invited (permanent/ad hoc) for consultation.
• Term: 4 years (non-renewable).
• Resignation: Permitted with 6 weeks’ notice.
• Disqualifications: Age above 70, insolvency, imprisonment of ≥180 days, or being a Member of Parliament/Legislature.
• Meets at least twice a year.
• Quorum: 3 members including the Chairperson (or Deputy Governor in his absence) and one government nominee.
• Decisions: Made by majority vote; the Chairperson (or Deputy Governor) holds a casting vote in case of a tie.
The PRB exercises oversight over entities licensed under the PSS Act, including:
→ National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
→ Clearing Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL)
→ Card and ATM networks, and other payment system operators.
Reason (R): SRM primarily alters Earth’s radiative balance by reflecting incoming sunlight, without reducing atmospheric CO₂ concentration.
Which of the following is correct?
SRM techniques: Methods such as Stratospheric Aerosol Injection or Marine Cloud Brightening can quickly cool the Earth by reflecting solar radiation, but they do not remove atmospheric CO₂.
Ocean acidification: Since CO₂ levels remain elevated, the chemical absorption of CO₂ by oceans continues, leading to ongoing acidification unaffected by SRM interventions.
Conceptual linkage: The reason correctly explains why SRM cannot mitigate ocean acidification, even though it cools the planet.
UPSC relevance: This conceptual nuance is a classic UPSC trap — students often assume that temperature reduction implies all CO₂ impacts are addressed.
“Large-scale deployment of enhanced rock weathering (ERW) or mineral dissolution methods (a CDR approach) may inadvertently alter surface albedo sufficiently to counteract or even reverse the cooling effect of CO₂ removal.”
Which of the following is most accurate in context of current research?
Recent modelling evidence: A recent study (Marston & Ibarra, 2025) posits that large-scale application of Enhanced Rock Weathering (ERW) or large ocean CDR interventions could alter surface reflectance (albedo) by small amounts that, cumulatively, generate radiative forcing comparable to the intended CO₂ removal. Even a slight change (parts per thousand) in albedo over vast regions may offset the intended cooling effect.
Option analysis:
Option A – Incorrect: It is too dismissive. The literature is actively investigating albedo feedback risks, not treating them as hypothetical.
Option B – Correct: Current models indicate that even modest albedo changes from large-scale mineral spreading could rival CO₂ removal’s radiative effects, making it the most accurate statement.
Option C – Incorrect: Albedo changes can cause either warming or cooling, depending on how minerals alter surface reflectivity.
Option D – Incorrect: The feedback is not limited to polar zones; it may apply to large terrestrial or oceanic areas.
1. Adding iron to seawater always ensures that plankton blooms sequester carbon for centuries in the deep ocean.
2. Experiments so far indicate that most phytoplankton blooms are consumed by zooplankton and do not lead to long-term carbon storage.
3. Large-scale fertilization slows down ocean circulation, thereby reducing its overall efficiency.
4. Ocean iron fertilization can create oxygen-deficient zones in deeper waters due to enhanced organic decomposition.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Incorrect: Iron addition does not guarantee long-term carbon sequestration. Most of the carbon absorbed by plankton is re-released into the atmosphere when the biomass decomposes in upper ocean layers. The permanence of deep-sea storage remains uncertain.
Statement 2 – Correct: Field trials such as the LOHAFEX experiment showed that iron-induced blooms were largely grazed upon by zooplankton, preventing significant carbon export to the deep ocean.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: There is no established evidence that large-scale fertilization directly slows ocean circulation; this statement is often used as a distractor.
Statement 4 – Correct: Enhanced biological activity and sinking organic matter can lead to oxygen depletion in subsurface zones, potentially causing local anoxia.