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Home » UPSC Prelims Quiz » UPSC Prelims Quiz: October 6, 2025

UPSC Prelims Quiz: October 6, 2025

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. The Aletsch Glacier, the largest glacier in the Alps, originates in the Bernese Alps and flows into the Rhône Valley.

2. The Jungfrau-Aletsch Protected Area, home to the Aletsch Glacier, is located entirely within the Canton of Graubünden.

3. Switzerland’s Rhône Glacier is one of the sources of the Rhine River.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

1 only

(b)

1 and 2 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

1 & 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: The Aletsch Glacier indeed lies in the Bernese Alps of Switzerland. It is the largest glacier in the Alps, flowing southwards into the Rhône Valley.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Jungfrau-Aletsch Protected Area spans the Canton of Bern and Valais, not Graubünden. Graubünden lies further east and contains glaciers like Silvretta and Clariden.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Rhône Glacier gives rise to the Rhône River, not the Rhine. The Rhine originates in the Grisons (Graubünden) Alps.

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only
Q2. With reference to the glaciers of Switzerland, consider the following pairs:
GlacierNotable Feature
1. Rhône GlacierSource of the Rhône River
2. Morteratsch GlacierRecently merged with Pers Glacier to form a larger ice mass
3. Plaine Morte GlacierOne of the largest plateau glaciers in the Alps
4. Pizol GlacierHas completely disappeared due to global warming

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a)

1, 3 and 4 only

(b)

1 and 2 only

(c)

2, 3 and 4 only

(d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Pair 1 – Correct: The Rhône Glacier is the source of the Rhône River, flowing into Lake Geneva and eventually the Mediterranean.

Pair 2 – Incorrect: The Morteratsch Glacier once connected with the Pers Glacier, but they are now separated due to rapid melting. Hence, the statement is outdated.

Pair 3 – Correct: The Plaine Morte Glacier is a plateau glacier—one of the largest at high elevation (~2,700 m)—located in the Bernese Alps.

Pair 4 – Correct: The Pizol Glacier, located in northeastern Switzerland, vanished entirely in recent years and has been symbolically declared “dead.”

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q3. Which of the following statements best explains why glacial retreat in Switzerland is particularly concerning for Europe’s hydrology?
(a)

Because Swiss glaciers feed only the Mediterranean Basin and not the Atlantic systems.

(b)

Because the Alps act as the hydrographic centre of Europe, feeding major transboundary rivers.

(c)

Because melting glaciers reduce the salinity of the North Sea and alter ocean currents.

(d)

Because Switzerland’s glaciers are located below 2,000 metres, causing uniform melting rates.

Explanation

Hydrological Role of the Alps: The Alps form Europe’s hydrographic divide, feeding rivers such as the Rhône (Mediterranean), Rhine (North Sea), Po (Adriatic), and Danube (Black Sea).

Continental Impact: Hence, glacial retreat in Switzerland affects continental-scale water systems.

Option (a) – Incorrect: Switzerland contributes to both Mediterranean and Atlantic basins.

Option (c) – Incorrect: Glacial meltwater from Switzerland does not directly influence North Sea salinity in a significant way.

Option (d) – Incorrect: Major glaciers lie above 3,000 m, though those below this height are disappearing faster.

Correct Answer: (b) Because the Alps act as the hydrographic centre of Europe, feeding major transboundary rivers.
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs):

1. They can be raised by Indian corporates and NBFCs only through the approval route of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. ECBs can be denominated either in foreign currency or in Indian Rupees.

3. Funds raised through ECBs are permitted to be used for real estate development and investment in capital markets, subject to RBI approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

2 only

(b)

1 and 2 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect: ECBs can be raised under two routes — the Automatic Route and the Approval Route. The automatic route applies if borrowers meet standard conditions; only exceptional cases require RBI approval.

Statement 2 – Correct: ECBs can be denominated either in foreign currency or INR, depending on the agreement between borrower and lender.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: RBI prohibits the use of ECB proceeds for real estate business, capital market investment, or speculative activities. They are primarily meant for infrastructure, capital expenditure, or refinancing.

Correct Answer: (a) 2 only
Q5. With reference to the External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) framework in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. All entities borrowing under ECBs must obtain a Loan Registration Number (LRN) from the Reserve Bank of India.

2. The maturity period and cost ceiling of ECBs are regulated under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.

3. Multilateral financial institutions and foreign equity holders are recognised as eligible lenders under the ECB framework.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: Every ECB transaction must be reported to RBI and assigned a Loan Registration Number (LRN) before drawdown. This ensures compliance and monitoring.

Statement 2 – Correct: ECBs are regulated under FEMA, 1999, and RBI prescribes rules for maturity period, borrowing cap, and cost ceilings through its Master Directions.

Statement 3 – Correct: Eligible lenders include international banks, multilateral institutions, export credit agencies, and foreign equity holders, among others.

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q6. Assertion (A): In international river-boundary delimitation, the Thalweg Principle generally applies to navigable rivers, placing the boundary along the centre of the principal navigable channel.
Reason (R): The principle’s rationale is to secure equitable freedom of navigation for riparian states; for non-navigable rivers, practice often prefers a median line.
(a)

Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

(b)

Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c)

A is correct, but R is incorrect

(d)

A is incorrect, but R is correct

Explanation

A is correct: The thalweg is taken as the centre of the principal navigable channel in boundary practice.

R is correct: The reason the thalweg is preferred on navigable rivers is to guarantee mutual navigation access; by contrast, the median line is commonly used where navigation isn’t determinative (non-navigable rivers).

R explains A: Because navigation access is the core rationale, navigability drives the choice of the thalweg; where that rationale is absent (non-navigable), practice shifts toward equal division by a median line.

Answer: (a)
Q7. A boundary dispute arises between State X and State Y over a river flowing between them. The river is navigable during the monsoon (vessels routinely use the channel then) and shallow the rest of the year. No boundary was fixed earlier. Which principle is most likely to be applied in international adjudication?
(a)

Thalweg of the principal navigable channel, identified from hydrographic criteria (depth, width, flow, navigability)

(b)

Median line (midway between the two banks)

(c)

Equidistance measured from the low-water line along each bank

(d)

Boundary following the left/eastern bank as a matter of historic administrative practice

Explanation

Default Rule: Where a boundary river is navigable, the default rule is the thalweg—the line of the principal navigable channel—so that each state retains equitable navigation access.

Hydrographic Criteria: International courts identify the “main channel” using depth, width, flow, bed profile, and navigability (as the ICJ did in the Kasikili/Sedudu Island case), which supports option (a) in this monsoon-navigable scenario.

Option (b) – Incorrect: The median line is the common approach for non-navigable rivers; since navigation exists here (even seasonally), the thalweg takes precedence.

Option (c) – Incorrect: It confuses river boundaries with maritime delimitation—equidistance from the low-water line and use of that line as a baseline are UNCLOS concepts for the sea, not for inter-state river boundaries.

Practical Consideration: Boundaries are fixed and mapped (coordinates/turning points) after delimitation; a seasonally shifting hybrid would be impractical and is not a recognized rule of customary law.

Answer: (a)
Read More: The Thalweg Principle In International River Boundaries
Q8. With reference to the Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) in India, consider the following statements:

1. It occurs naturally above the tree line in both the Western and Eastern Himalayas.

2. It is the State Animal of Himachal Pradesh as well as Ladakh.

3. The Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Programme was launched in Bishkek to promote transboundary conservation across its range countries.

4. In India, the Snow Leopard Population Assessment (SLPAI) was conducted jointly by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the Snow Leopard Trust.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1, 2 and 3 only

(b)

1, 3 and 4 only

(c)

2 and 4 only

(d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: The snow leopard’s range spans the Western Himalaya (J&K, Ladakh, Himachal, Uttarakhand) and Eastern Himalaya (Sikkim, Arunachal) — usually above 3,000 m, in alpine zones beyond the tree line.

Statement 2 – Correct: It is officially the State Animal of Himachal Pradesh and also recognized as the UT Animal of Ladakh.

Statement 3 – Correct: The GSLEP was adopted at the Bishkek Declaration (2013) in Kyrgyzstan, involving 12 range countries for ecosystem-level conservation.

Statement 4 – Incorrect: India’s Snow Leopard Population Assessment (2023) was led by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in collaboration with state forest departments and the Nature Conservation Foundation, not the Snow Leopard Trust.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q9. With reference to Stablecoins, consider the following statements:

1. Fully-reserved stablecoins are backed by liquid assets such as fiat currency or short-term government securities.

2. Stablecoins can be programmed for automatic settlement within decentralized financial applications.

3. Since their value is linked to fiat currency, they are designed to function as digital equivalents of central bank digital currencies (CBDCs).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: Fully-reserved stablecoins (e.g. USDC, USDT) maintain stability through collateral held in fiat or liquid securities, ensuring redeemability at par.

Statement 2 – Correct: Being blockchain-based and programmable, stablecoins can be embedded in smart contracts, facilitating automated lending, payments, and settlements in DeFi ecosystems.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Although both stablecoins and CBDCs may track fiat value, they are conceptually different —

• Stablecoins are privately issued, often decentralized, and serve as bridges between traditional finance and DeFi.

• CBDCs are sovereign, centralized digital currencies issued by central banks.

Hence, stablecoins are not digital equivalents of CBDCs, but rather alternative instruments in the evolving digital money ecosystem.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Click to Read More about Stablecoins
Q10. Consider the following Commissions:

1. Sundaram Commission (1972)

2. Shastri Commission (1985)

3. J.K. Pillai Commission (1997)

4. Variava & Chatterjee Commissions (2006)

How many of the above are related to the Assam–Nagaland Border Dispute?

(a)

Only two

(b)

Only three

(c)

All four

(d)

Only one

Explanation

All four — Sundaram (1972), Shastri (1985), J.K. Pillai (1997), and Variava & Chatterjee (2006) — were constituted at different times to examine or mediate the Assam–Nagaland boundary dispute, particularly concerning the Disputed Area Belt (DAB) spanning Assam’s Golaghat, Jorhat, Sivasagar, and Karbi Anglong districts.

The Sundaram Commission (1972) initiated efforts that led to interim agreements to maintain the status quo.

The Shastri Commission (1985) and J.K. Pillai Commission (1997) attempted further resolution but failed to produce a mutually acceptable demarcation.

The Variava & Chatterjee Commissions (2006), appointed later, also examined inter-state boundary aspects but could not reach finality.

Answer: (c) All four