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Home » UPSC Prelims Quiz » UPSC Prelims Quiz: October 8, 2025

UPSC Prelims Quiz: October 8, 2025

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Finger Lakes region in the United States:

1. The Finger Lakes are classic examples of overdeepened glacial basins formed by subglacial erosion during multiple glacial cycles.

2. Terminal moraines deposited at the southern ends of the lakes act as natural dams, preventing drainage into the Susquehanna River system.

3. Several waterfalls in the region are formed by hanging valleys where tributary streams descend steeply into the main lake valleys.

4. The orientation of the lakes is perpendicular to the direction of glacial movement.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

Only two

(b)

Only three

(c)

All four

(d)

Only one

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: The Finger Lakes are classic examples of overdeepened glacial basins (ellipsoidal basins) created by subglacial erosion as thick ice sheets repeatedly advanced and retreated during the Pleistocene Epoch.

Statement 2 – Correct: Terminal moraines, such as the Valley Heads Moraine, were deposited at the southern ends of the lakes as glaciers retreated. These moraines act as natural dams, impounding the lakes and blocking drainage to the south into the Susquehanna River system.

Statement 3 – Correct: Numerous gorges and waterfalls in the region result from hanging valleys, where tributary streams were less deeply eroded by glacial ice compared to the main troughs. The steep drop creates waterfalls such as Taughannock Falls near Cayuga Lake.

Statement 4 – Incorrect: The lakes are oriented parallel to the direction of glacial movement (north–south), not perpendicular. The ice advanced southward, carving out pre-existing river valleys into the long, narrow lakes seen today.

Correct Answer: (b) Only three
Q2. In recent studies, scientists exploring mysterious booming sounds called “Seneca Guns” from Seneca Lake have posited that the sounds may originate from which one of the following mechanisms?
(a)

Dissociation of methane hydrates in the lake sediments producing rapid gas expansion/explosive release

(b)

Subaqueous landslides triggering pressure waves in the water column

(c)

Shallow crustal microseismic events (micro-earthquakes) transmitting acoustic energy into the lake

(d)

Sudden release of stored CO₂ gas from deep saline aquifers into the lake basin

Explanation

• Recent sonar and geophysical surveys have discovered divots or crater-like depressions on the bottom of Seneca Lake (often more than 100 such features) that may correspond to sites where methane has escaped explosively from beneath the sediments. Such escape events could produce acoustic “boom” pulses.

• The hypothesis is that methane or other geological gases trapped under pressure may suddenly bubble or burst out, creating a shock or pressure pulse perceived as a boom (similar in effect to gas “burps”).

• Option B (subaqueous landslides) is also proposed in some explanations of similar phenomena (skyquakes), but in the particular investigations of Seneca Lake, the methane hypothesis is being actively pursued and has direct physical evidence (craters) supporting it.

• Option C (microseismicity) is also sometimes discussed in the general literature on “skyquakes,” but the observed features in the lake bed and context favor the gas escape theory more strongly in this case.

• Option D (CO₂ release) is less likely: the lake and surrounding geology are better suited for methane or hydrocarbon gas storage, and the literature so far does not emphasize CO₂ as the gas candidate in this particular setting.

Answer: (a) Dissociation of methane hydrates in the lake sediments producing rapid gas expansion/explosive release
Q3. Consider the following statements about the RBI’s revised capital adequacy framework under Basel III norms (effective April 2027):

1. The revised norms are expected to reduce risk weights for certain categories of loans such as MSME and housing.

2. The changes aim to align India’s framework with the latest Basel Committee standards.

3. The overall capital adequacy ratio for Indian banks has been lowered to 7%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: Revised Basel III norms (to be implemented by 2027) will assign lower risk weights to MSME and residential real estate exposures to improve credit flow.

Statement 2 – Correct: The reform aligns India’s prudential norms with updated Basel III guidelines adopted globally.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: The capital adequacy ratio remains well above 7%; RBI’s minimum is 9% (plus buffers). No reduction in overall CAR was announced.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Q4. With reference to the Financial Benchmarks India Limited (FBIL), consider the following statements:

1. FBIL publishes reference rates for major global currencies such as USD, Euro, Pound, and Yen.

2. RBI has proposed expanding the benchmark list to include additional trading partner currencies.

3. The primary objective is to allow banks to quote foreign exchange pairs without routing trades through the dollar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1, 2 and 3

(d)

1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: FBIL already benchmarks major currencies including USD, Euro, Pound, and Yen.

Statement 2 – Correct: RBI announced plans to expand the currency list beyond these to deepen forex markets.

Statement 3 – Correct: Direct cross-currency quoting reduces reliance on the dollar as an intermediary in trade and investment transactions.

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVAs):

1. They were introduced by the RBI to facilitate trade settlement in rupees.

2. Surplus balances in these accounts can now be invested in Indian corporate bonds and commercial paper.

3. Such balances can be freely converted into foreign currency without RBI approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: SRVAs were introduced in 2022 to enable invoicing and settlement of international trade in rupees.

Statement 2 – Correct: RBI has now allowed surplus SRVA balances to be invested in corporate bonds and commercial papers, apart from government securities.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Conversion of SRVA balances into other currencies still requires RBI’s regulatory oversight and cannot be done freely.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Q6. With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s recent measures to deepen financial markets, consider the following statements:

1. Banks in India are now permitted to finance mergers and acquisitions directly.

2. The ceiling on loans against shares for individuals has been raised from ₹10 lakh to ₹25 lakh.

3. The ceiling on lending against listed debt securities has been removed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

1 and 3 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1 and 2 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: For the first time, RBI has allowed banks to directly finance corporate takeovers and mergers — earlier restricted to NBFCs or bond markets.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: The IPO financing limit was raised to ₹25 lakh, not loans against shares. The loan against shares limit was raised from ₹20 lakh to ₹1 crore.

Statement 3 – Correct: RBI has proposed removing the ceiling on loans against listed debt securities to promote market liquidity.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Q7. With reference to rogue planets, recently in the news, consider the following statements:

1. They may form either by ejection from a planetary system or by direct collapse of a gas cloud.

2. Some of them can accrete material even without orbiting a host star.

3. They are easily detected in visible light due to high surface temperatures.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: Rogue planets can arise from ejection during early system formation or by direct gas-cloud collapse.

Statement 2 – Correct: The 2025 discovery of Cha 1107-7626 shows active gas-dust accretion without a parent star.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: They are faint in visible light; detection mainly uses infrared imaging or microlensing.

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Q8. With reference to the Atacama Desert, consider the following statements:

1. Its extreme aridity results primarily from the combined effect of the Andes rain shadow and the cold Humboldt Current.

2. Certain parts of the Atacama receive moisture from fog known locally as camanchaca.

3. The desert lies entirely east of the Andes mountain range.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

1 only

(b)

1 and 2 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: The Atacama’s dryness is due to the rain shadow effect of the Andes and the cold Humboldt Current, both preventing moisture inflow.

Statement 2 – Correct: In some coastal areas, plants derive limited moisture from fog locally called “camanchaca.”

Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Atacama lies between the Andes and the Chilean Coast Range, not east of the Andes.

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Q9. With reference to the Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KM-GBF), how does India’s National Red List Roadmap (2025–2030) align with its targets?

1. It directly fulfills Target 1 by ensuring conservation and management of 30% of terrestrial and marine areas by 2030.

2. It contributes to achieving Target 4 by providing national data on extinction risk and priority species for protection.

3. It supports Target 19 by mobilizing international funding for biodiversity projects in developing countries.

4. It provides a scientific evidence base to guide implementation of multiple KM-GBF targets within India’s policy framework.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 and 4 only

(c)

1, 2 and 3 only

(d)

1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect: Target 1 (30×30 target) is an area-based conservation goal. The Red List identifies threatened species and priority habitats but does not itself ensure conservation or management of 30% of global or national land/water area. It informs, not implements, the target.

Statement 2 – Correct: Target 4 aims to halt human-induced species extinction. The National Red List directly supports this by assessing extinction risk, identifying species under pressure, and guiding conservation priorities.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Target 19 relates to financial resource mobilization (~USD 200 billion/year globally). The Red List Roadmap is a scientific and assessment exercise, not a financial or funding mechanism.

Statement 4 – Correct: The initiative strengthens India’s science–policy interface — providing data, trend analysis, and national baselines that help integrate KM-GBF targets (e.g., Targets 4, 8, 13) into Indian environmental planning.

Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Q10. With reference to India’s National Red List Roadmap (2025–2030), consider the following statements:

1. It marks India’s first nationally coordinated system for assessing species’ extinction risk using globally recognized IUCN categories.

2. The assessments under this roadmap will automatically update the global IUCN Red List.

3. The initiative integrates traditional ecological knowledge in documenting species distribution and threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)

1 and 3 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

1 and 2 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: The roadmap establishes India’s first unified, IUCN-guided national red-listing framework.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: National assessments do not automatically update the global IUCN Red List; they require peer-reviewed submission to IUCN’s Species Survival Commission before inclusion. This is the key trap.

Statement 3 – Correct: The framework explicitly recognizes the role of traditional and community-based knowledge in assessing species distribution and threats.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Also read: National Red List Roadmap And Vision 2025–2030