01
Consider the following statements:
- Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) incorporates female mortality before the end of reproductive age, whereas Total Fertility Rate (TFR) assumes zero mortality.
- A male-skewed Sex Ratio at Birth lowers the Total Fertility Rate required to achieve population replacement.
- Reaching replacement-level fertility results in immediate zero population growth.
- “Unmet need for family planning” includes all women of reproductive age who are not using contraceptives.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Answer: (a) Only one
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − TFR measures the average
number of children a woman would bear under prevailing age-specific
fertility rates while assuming survival throughout the reproductive
years. NRR adjusts reproduction for the mortality of females before
they complete their reproductive age.
Statement 2
Incorrect − A male-skewed Sex
Ratio at Birth reduces the proportion of female births. A higher,
not lower, TFR would therefore be required to produce enough
surviving daughters to replace the maternal generation.
Statement 3
Incorrect − Population may
continue to grow after replacement-level fertility is reached
because a youthful age structure creates population momentum.
Zero population growth occurs only after the age structure
stabilises, assuming migration and mortality conditions remain
unchanged.
Statement 4
Incorrect − Unmet need for
family planning does not include every woman who is not using
contraception. It applies to women who are fecund, wish to postpone
or avoid pregnancy, and are not using an effective contraceptive
method.
02
With reference to Indian demographic indicators, consider the following statements:
- General Fertility Rate (GFR) uses the female population in the reproductive age group as its denominator, unlike Crude Birth Rate (CBR).
- A high Infant Mortality Rate generally leads to a decline in the Total Fertility Rate.
- According to NFHS-5, female sterilisation accounts for more than half of total contraceptive use in India.
- Wanted Fertility Rate excludes births reported as unwanted at the time of pregnancy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Answer: (c) Only three
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − GFR measures live births
per 1,000 women of reproductive age, generally 15–49 years. CBR
measures live births per 1,000 persons in the total population.
Statement 2
Incorrect − High infant mortality
generally encourages higher fertility because families may have
additional children to compensate for actual or anticipated child
deaths. Declining infant mortality usually contributes to lower
fertility.
Statement 3
Correct − NFHS-5 recorded female
sterilisation as the dominant contraceptive method in India. Its
prevalence among currently married women was sufficiently high to
constitute more than half of overall contraceptive use.
Statement 4
Correct − Wanted Fertility Rate
estimates the fertility level that would prevail if births
classified as unwanted at the time of conception were excluded.
03
Consider the following statements regarding effective exchange rates:
- NEER is a trade-weighted measure of nominal exchange rates against a currency basket.
- REER adjusts NEER for relative inflation or price movements.
- A REER below 100 necessarily produces an increase in exports.
- Currency depreciation ordinarily makes imports cheaper in domestic-currency terms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − The Nominal Effective
Exchange Rate is a trade-weighted index of a country’s nominal
bilateral exchange rates against a selected basket of currencies.
Statement 2
Correct − The Real Effective
Exchange Rate adjusts the NEER for relative inflation or price
movements between the domestic economy and its trading partners.
Statement 3
Incorrect − A REER below the
base-year value may indicate relative currency undervaluation, but
it does not necessarily increase exports. Export performance also
depends on productive capacity, external demand, trade barriers,
supply conditions and imported-input costs.
Statement 4
Incorrect − Currency depreciation
ordinarily raises the domestic-currency price of foreign goods and
therefore makes imports more expensive, not cheaper.
04
With reference to urban local governance, consider the following statements:
- The Twelfth Schedule includes regulation of land use and construction of buildings as a possible municipal function.
- Article 243W automatically transfers every Twelfth Schedule function to every municipality.
- The National Building Code is independently enforceable throughout India without incorporation into State or local law.
- Fragmentation between municipalities, development authorities and specialised agencies can weaken accountability.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − The Twelfth Schedule
includes urban planning, regulation of land use and construction
of buildings, and fire services among the functions that may be
entrusted to municipalities.
Statement 2
Incorrect − Article 243W does
not automatically devolve every Twelfth Schedule function to every
municipality. State legislatures determine the powers,
responsibilities and authority assigned to municipalities.
Statement 3
Incorrect − The National
Building Code is a model code. It becomes legally enforceable only
when incorporated into applicable State laws, municipal
bye-laws, rules or regulations.
Statement 4
Correct − Divided control over
land use, building approvals, infrastructure and enforcement among
multiple agencies can obscure responsibility and weaken
accountability.
05
Consider the following statements about forest and tiger conservation:
- Joint Forest Management involves community participation in forest protection and specified benefit-sharing.
- Tiger reserves contain core or critical tiger habitat and buffer or peripheral areas under the Wild Life (Protection) Act.
- Inclusion under the Tigers Outside Tiger Reserves initiative automatically converts a forest division into a Tiger Reserve.
- The number of saplings planted is legally identical to the area classified as forest cover.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Joint Forest Management
links the participation of local communities in forest protection,
regeneration and management with access to specified forest
benefits and benefit-sharing arrangements.
Statement 2
Correct − Section 38V of the Wild
Life (Protection) Act provides for Tiger Reserves comprising a core
or critical tiger habitat and a buffer or peripheral area.
Statement 3
Incorrect − The Tigers Outside
Tiger Reserves initiative supports tiger conservation and habitat
management beyond notified reserve boundaries. Inclusion under the
initiative does not automatically alter the legal status of a
forest division or notify it as a Tiger Reserve.
Statement 4
Incorrect − The number of
saplings planted measures plantation activity, whereas forest cover
depends on factors such as survival, canopy density and satellite
assessment. These measures are also distinct from the legal status
of land as forest.
06
With reference to emerging mobile-communication standards, consider the following statements:
- IMT-2030 is associated with the ITU’s framework for the next generation of mobile communications.
- 3GPP develops technical specifications through participating standards organisations.
- The Bharat 6G Alliance is a statutory spectrum-allocation authority.
- Publication of a 6G vision document establishes that a nationwide commercial network is operational.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − IMT-2030 is the
International Telecommunication Union’s framework associated with
the capabilities and development of the next generation of mobile
communication systems.
Statement 2
Correct − The 3rd Generation
Partnership Project develops globally applicable technical
specifications through collaboration among its organisational
partners, which are recognised telecommunications standards bodies.
Statement 3
Incorrect − The Bharat 6G
Alliance is a collaborative industry, academic and research
platform intended to support innovation and participation in 6G
development. It is not a statutory regulator or spectrum-allocation
authority.
Statement 4
Incorrect − A vision document
outlines objectives and a development roadmap. Research,
standardisation, spectrum planning, trials and nationwide
commercial deployment are distinct stages.
07
With reference to ‘Samudra Pradakshina’, consider the following statements:
- It is the first-ever tri-service all-women global sailing circumnavigation undertaken by the Indian Armed Forces.
- The voyage was conducted aboard the Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini.
- To meet internationally recognised criteria for a sailing circumnavigation, a vessel must cross the Equator twice and round the Three Great Capes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Samudra Pradakshina
brought together women officers from the Indian Army, Indian Navy
and Indian Air Force, marking India’s first tri-service all-women
global sailing circumnavigation.
Statement 2
Incorrect − The expedition was
undertaken aboard the Indian Army Sailing Vessel IASV Triveni, not
INSV Tarini. INSV Tarini was used for earlier Indian Navy
circumnavigation missions.
Statement 3
Correct − A recognised sailing
circumnavigation requires the voyage to cross the Equator at least
twice, cross all meridians of longitude and the International Date
Line, and round Cape Leeuwin, Cape Horn and the Cape of Good Hope.