With reference to India’s position on nuclear treaties, consider the following statements:
1. India has signed but not ratified the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW).
2. India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) because it has not signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
3. India supports negotiations for a comprehensive nuclear weapons convention through the Conference on Disarmament.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1: Incorrect – India did not participate in TPNW negotiations and has not signed it.
- ➜ Statement 2: Correct – India is not in NSG since it hasn’t signed NPT.
- ➜ Statement 3: Correct – India advocates a comprehensive nuclear weapons convention via Conference on Disarmament.
Consider the following statements regarding global nuclear treaties:
1. The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) prohibits all nuclear test explosions, whether for military or civilian purposes.
2. India has signed but not ratified the Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT).
3. North Korea is the only country to have withdrawn from the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
4. The Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty (FMCT) has not yet been concluded, and negotiations on it remain stalled at the Conference on Disarmament.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1: Correct – CTBT bans all nuclear test explosions.
Statement 2: Incorrect – India not only signed but also ratified the PTBT (1963).
Statement 3: Correct – North Korea is the only state to have withdrawn from the NPT (2003).
Statement 4: Correct – FMCT is still under negotiation and remains stalled.
Answer: (b) Only three
The Damini mobile application, recently seen in the news, is primarily associated with which of the following?
The Damini mobile app has been developed by IITM-Pune and ESSO, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
It provides real-time lightning alerts to users based on GPS location and helps reduce casualties by warning people to take preventive measures.
With reference to Co-Lending Arrangements (CLA) in India, consider the following statements:
1. It is a framework under which banks and NBFCs jointly lend to borrowers with a predetermined sharing of risks and rewards.
2. Borrowers are charged a single blended rate of interest decided jointly by the lenders.
3. Each participating lender must retain at least 10% of every loan on its own books.
4. Co-lending is restricted only to priority sector loans.
5. Asset classification of a co-lent loan must be consistent across all participating lenders.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Statement 1 – Correct. CLA is a joint lending model with risk and reward shared between banks and NBFCs.
- Statement 2 – Correct. The borrower faces one blended interest rate, determined by lenders.
- Statement 3 – Correct. RBI requires each lender to retain at least 10% of exposure on its own books.
- Statement 4 – Incorrect. Earlier limited to PSL, but since 2025 the scope covers both PSL and non-PSL loans, including unsecured lending.
- Statement 5 – Correct. RBI mandates uniform asset classification for the same co-lent loan across lenders to ensure transparency and avoid regulatory arbitrage.
Answer: C (Only four)
RBI Revises Co-lending Norms to Enhance Risk Sharing and Transparency
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued revised directions on Co-lending Arrangements (CLAs) between banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). These changes have been notified under provisions of the Banking Regulation Act (1949), the RBI Act (1934), and the National Housing Bank Act (1987).
What is Co-lending?
Co-lending refers to an arrangement where two or more Regulated Entities (REs) jointly extend credit to borrowers. Such lending partnerships are permitted only if they comply with the prudential norms prescribed by the RBI.
Key Features of the Revised Directions
- Minimum Loan Share – Each participating RE must retain at least 10% of every loan.
- Priority Sector Lending (PSL) Recognition – Each lender is allowed to classify its share as PSL, provided the loan qualifies under PSL norms.
- Uniform Asset Classification – If one co-lender categorizes a loan as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA), the other lenders must adopt the same classification.
- Blended Interest Rate – The rate charged to borrowers will be based on the weighted average of the lenders’ internal rates, in proportion to their funding share.
Significance of Co-lending
- For Banks – Wider outreach through NBFCs’ last-mile connectivity and better compliance with PSL requirements.
- For NBFCs – Reduced credit risk and greater access to low-cost funds.
- For Borrowers – Affordable credit due to competitive interest rates and flexible loan structures tailored by NBFCs to local needs.
The camps Zamzam and Abu Shouk (also called “Naivasha”) have frequently appeared in recent news reports. These camps are located in which country?
- Zamzam and Abu Shouk/Naivasha are large displacement camps inside Sudan, specifically in North Darfur around El Fasher (Zamzam to the south of the town; Abu Shouk to the northwest). They primarily host internally displaced persons (IDPs) from Darfur’s conflict zones.
- A. Chad is plausible because it hosts many Sudanese refugee sites along the border (e.g., Adré–Farchana belt), but Zamzam/Abu Shouk are not in Chad—they are inside Sudan.
- C. South Sudan also hosts major displacement sites (e.g., Bentiu IDP camp in Unity State), yet the El Fasher–linked camps are in Sudan, not South Sudan.
- D. Central African Republic (CAR) has seen cross-border displacement near Vakaga/Birao, but the named camps are specific to North Darfur, Sudan.
With reference to Environmental DNA (eDNA), consider the following statements:
1. eDNA sampling requires capturing or directly observing the organism to obtain genetic material.
2. Metabarcoding using eDNA can provide information about entire biological communities from a single sample.
3. eDNA techniques can be applied to terrestrial soil, marine sediments, freshwater bodies, and even air.
4. The use of eDNA always requires sequencing of the entire genome of the detected organisms.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- Statement 1: Incorrect. eDNA is non-invasive and does not require capturing organisms; samples are collected from water, soil, air, etc.
- Statement 2: Correct. eDNA metabarcoding can detect multiple species simultaneously and reconstruct community composition.
- Statement 3: Correct. eDNA applications span terrestrial, aquatic, and atmospheric environments.
- Statement 4: Incorrect. Full genome sequencing is not required; specific gene regions (e.g., CO1, 16S rRNA, ITS) are usually amplified.
In recent years, the use of Environmental DNA (eDNA) has been expanding. Which of the following are potential uses of eDNA in environmental management?
1. Tracking recovery of wildlife in restored ecosystems.
2. Detecting zoonotic viruses in environmental samples.
3. Screening harmful species at ports and borders.
4. Measuring the age of individual animals in their natural habitat.
Codes:
- 1: Correct. Tracking recovery of wildlife in restored ecosystems: eDNA is widely used to monitor biodiversity, presence, and recovery of wildlife—including rare, endangered, or elusive species—within various habitats and restored ecosystems. It enables non-invasive and cost-effective monitoring of species without disturbing them.
- 2: Correct. Detecting zoonotic viruses in environmental samples: eDNA analysis is increasingly applied for the detection of pathogens, including zoonotic viruses, in water, soil, and other environmental media. This aids in disease surveillance and management, highlighting its value for public health monitoring.
- 3: Correct. Screening harmful species at ports and borders: eDNA enables early detection of invasive, harmful, or non-native species at ports, borders, and other entry points, making it useful for biosecurity and prevention strategies against ecological threats.
- 4: Incorrect. Measuring the age of individual animals in their natural habitat: While recent technological advances such as DNA methylation analysis and related biomarkers have made it possible to estimate population age structure—i.e., the relative age distribution of a group of animals—from environmental samples, reliably determining the age of individual wild animals via eDNA is not currently practical or routinely feasible. The technique holds promise mainly for population-level age estimates, not for tracking the age of specific individuals.
Which of the following recent scientific advances is directly linked to the study of Environmental DNA (eDNA)?
The other options, such as direct recovery of DNA from dinosaur fossils (a), direct sequencing from frozen carcasses (c), and extraction of proteins for evolutionary analysis (d), are not directly linked to the core methodology and applications of eDNA studies. Only option (b) accurately reflects a breakthrough that environmental DNA technology has enabled.
With reference to the physical geography of France, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The River Loire originates in France and drains into the Mediterranean Sea.
2. The Pyrenees form a natural border between France and Spain.
3. The Strait of Dover separates France from England.
4. The Jura Mountains lie to the north of the Alps.
Codes:
• Statement 2: Correct. The Pyrenees separate France from Spain.
• Statement 3: Correct. The Strait of Dover separates France from England.
• Statement 4: Correct. The Jura Mountains are located north of the Alps.
Therefore, 3 statements are correct.