01
With reference to the constitutional procedure governing Money Bills, consider the following statements:
- A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
- The Rajya Sabha may amend or reject a Money Bill, and its decision is binding on the Lok Sabha.
- If the Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill within fourteen days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which the Lok Sabha passed it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
Articles 109 and 110 establish a special legislative procedure for Money Bills. The Rajya Sabha has only a recommendatory role, while the Lok Sabha retains the final authority to accept or reject its recommendations.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It must originate in the Lok Sabha and requires the President’s recommendation before introduction.
Statement 2
Incorrect − The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It may return the Bill with recommendations, but the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject any or all of them.
Statement 3
Correct − The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within fourteen days. If it fails to do so, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form approved by the Lok Sabha.
Additional Prelims Facts
Financial Bill distinction
A Bill containing financial provisions need not necessarily be a Money Bill. Certain Financial Bills under Article 117 remain subject to the ordinary bicameral procedure.
No joint sitting
A joint sitting under Article 108 cannot be convened for a Money Bill or a Constitution Amendment Bill.
Judges Bill
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 seeks to increase the number of judges other than the Chief Justice of India from 33 to 37, raising the total sanctioned strength to 38.
02
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): The use of E20 petrol may reduce fuel economy in a vehicle whose engine is not optimally calibrated for a higher ethanol blend.
Reason (R): Ethanol contains less energy per litre than petrol, even though it has a higher octane rating.
Which one of the following is correct?
The correct answer is (a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Core Concept
Core Concept
Energy density and octane rating measure different fuel properties. Energy density influences the energy available from a given volume, whereas octane rating indicates resistance to premature ignition or engine knocking.
Assertion–Reason Analysis
Assertion
Correct − E20 contains less energy per litre than pure petrol. An engine that is not designed or calibrated to exploit ethanol’s combustion characteristics may therefore experience a reduction in fuel economy.
Reason
Correct − Ethanol’s energy content per litre is lower than that of petrol, while its octane rating is higher.
Explanatory relationship
Correct − The lower volumetric energy content directly explains why more E20 may be required to travel the same distance, unless engine design and calibration partly compensate for the difference.
Additional Prelims Facts
E20 composition
E20 contains 20% ethanol and 80% petrol by volume.
Octane function
A higher octane number signifies greater resistance to knocking; it does not signify greater energy content per litre.
Second-generation ethanol
Second-generation ethanol uses lignocellulosic material such as agricultural residues and other non-food biomass, generally after pretreatment to release fermentable sugars.
03
Which of the following best describes the principal technological advantage of ‘Base Editing’ over traditional CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing technology?
The correct answer is (a).
Core Concept
Core Concept
Traditional CRISPR-Cas9 acts like “molecular scissors”—the Cas9 enzyme cuts through both strands of the DNA double helix to create a Double-Strand Break (DSB). The cell then attempts to repair this break using its native mechanisms (such as Non-Homologous End Joining), which often causes unpredictable insertions, deletions, or off-target mutations.Base Editing acts more like a “pencil and eraser.” By fusing a catalytically deactivated (or nickase) Cas protein with a deaminase enzyme, base editors can directly convert one targeted nucleobase into another (e.g., C$\rightarrow$T or A$\rightarrow$G) at a precise single-letter site without breaking the DNA double-strand backbone, drastically reducing unwanted genetic side effects.
Options Analysis
Option (a)
Option (a) is correct: Base editors use engineered enzymes (such as cytidine or adenine deaminases) to perform precise chemical transformations of individual nucleobases directly on intact single-stranded DNA, bypassing the hazards associated with double-strand breaks.
Option (b)
Option (b) is incorrect: Base editing still relies on a guide RNA (gRNA) sequence to navigate to and lock onto the specific genomic address; it only changes the cutting/editing action once bound.
Option (c)
Option (c) is incorrect: Base editing is designed for precise, single-letter base conversions. Large gene insertions are typically handled by Prime Editing or traditional Homology-Directed Repair (HDR) frameworks, not base editing.
Option (d)
Option (d) is incorrect: Base editing directly modifies nuclear genomic DNA permanently; it is not an RNA-only or transient expression therapy.
Additional Prelims Facts
Four DNA Nitrogenous Bases
Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G). Point mutations (a single mismatched base pair) account for nearly 60% of human hereditary genetic disorders (e.g., Sickle Cell Anemia, Beta-Thalassemia).
Types of Base Editors
Cytosine Base Editors (CBEs): Convert C-G base pairs into T-A.Adenine Base Editors (ABEs): Convert A-T base pairs into G-C.
Evolutionary Upgrade (Prime Editing)
Developed after base editing, Prime Editing uses a reverse transcriptase enzyme paired with a prime editing guide RNA (pegRNA) to write new genetic information directly into a specified DNA site without DSBs.
04
With reference to Compressed Biogas and India’s related policy framework, consider the following statements:
- Compressed Biogas is produced by purifying and upgrading raw biogas and subsequently compressing the methane-rich gas.
- The Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation initiative was launched on October 1, 2018.
- The mandatory Compressed Biogas Blending Obligation is 3% in 2026–27, 4% in 2027–28 and 5% from 2028–29 for the CNG transport and domestic PNG segments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 3.
Core Concept
Core Concept
Raw biogas contains methane, carbon dioxide and trace gases. Removal of carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, moisture and other impurities raises the methane concentration, after which the gas can be compressed and used through infrastructure similar to that used for CNG.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Purification and upgrading distinguish CBG from untreated biogas. The upgraded methane-rich gas is compressed for transport, distribution or injection into compatible gas networks.
Statement 2
Correct − SATAT was launched on October 1, 2018 to develop an ecosystem for producing CBG from waste and biomass and procuring it for use with natural gas.
Statement 3
Correct − The notified obligation is 1% for 2025–26, 3% for 2026–27, 4% for 2027–28 and 5% from 2028–29. It applies to CNG used in transport and PNG supplied to the domestic segment.
Additional Prelims Facts
CBG versus CNG
CBG is renewable methane obtained from biomass, whereas conventional CNG is generally derived from fossil natural gas.
Biogas composition
Untreated biogas commonly contains about 55–65% methane, while upgrading can raise methane purity substantially.
Gas-pricing unit
MMBTU is an energy unit used in gas pricing; it is not a unit of gas volume.
05
Consider the following pairs concerning the stages of anaerobic digestion:
- Hydrolysis — Breakdown of complex organic material into smaller soluble molecules
- Acidogenesis — Conversion of soluble organic compounds into organic acids, alcohols and other fermentation products
- Methanogenesis — Production of methane from suitable intermediate compounds
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
The correct answer is (a) All three.
Core Concept
Core Concept
Anaerobic digestion is the microbial decomposition of biodegradable organic matter in the absence of free oxygen. The process is commonly described through four interconnected stages: hydrolysis, acidogenesis, acetogenesis and methanogenesis.
Pair-wise Analysis
Pair 1
Correct − Hydrolytic microorganisms and enzymes break carbohydrates, proteins and lipids into simpler soluble compounds.
Pair 2
Correct − Acidogenic microorganisms ferment these soluble compounds into volatile fatty acids, alcohols, hydrogen, carbon dioxide and related products.
Pair 3
Correct − Methanogenic microorganisms produce methane principally from acetate or from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
06
With reference to the Central Asian Flyway, consider the following statements:
- It forms a broad migratory network connecting regions around the Arctic and Indian Oceans.
- The Central Asian Flyway Initiative established at the fourteenth Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species is supported by a coordinating unit hosted by India.
- The Initiative is confined exclusively to migratory waterbirds and does not cover landbirds or raptors.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (c) 1 and 2 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
A flyway is not a single narrow aerial corridor. It is a network of breeding grounds, stopover sites, feeding areas and non-breeding habitats used by different migratory populations during their annual movements.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − The Central Asian Flyway extends across North, Central and South Asia and the Trans-Caucasus, linking migratory systems between the Arctic and Indian Oceans.
Statement 2
Correct − CMS COP14, held in Samarkand in February 2024, formally established the Initiative under Resolution 14.13. Its coordinating unit is hosted by the Government of India.
Statement 3
Incorrect − The earlier action plan focused primarily on migratory waterbirds, but the institutional framework established at COP14 covers waterbirds, landbirds and raptors.
07
With reference to the Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:
- It applies to all Scheduled Commercial Banks, excluding Regional Rural Banks.
- Capital adequacy, asset quality, and financial leverage are the core trigger indicators under the revised framework.
- Under mandatory PCA restrictions, the RBI can prohibit a lender from expanding its branch network and distributing dividends.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Core Concept
Core Concept
The Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework is a structured supervisory tool used by the RBI to intervene in financially stressed banks before capital erosion renders them insolvent. It acts as an “early warning and remediation” system, imposing operational restrictions on weak lenders to restore their financial health.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − The PCA framework applies to all Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), including foreign banks operating through branches/subsidiaries in India. However, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Small Finance Banks are excluded from this specific framework (RRBs are monitored under a separate supervisory mechanism by NABARD).
Statement 2
Correct − Under the RBI’s revised PCA framework, monitoring is based on three primary parameter/trigger indicators:
Capital (CRAR / Common Equity Tier 1 ratio)
Asset Quality (Net Non-Performing Assets ratio)
Leverage (Tier-1 Leverage ratio)
(Note: Return on Assets / Profitability was dropped as a direct trigger parameter in the revised framework).
Capital (CRAR / Common Equity Tier 1 ratio)
Asset Quality (Net Non-Performing Assets ratio)
Leverage (Tier-1 Leverage ratio)
(Note: Return on Assets / Profitability was dropped as a direct trigger parameter in the revised framework).
Statement 3
Correct − Once a bank breaches specified risk thresholds, the RBI enforces mandatory restrictions, which include capping branch expansion, restricting dividend distribution or profit remittance, and placing limits on capital expenditure.
Additional Prelims Facts
Extension to NBFCs
The RBI extended a similar PCA framework to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)—including Deposit-taking NBFCs, Non-deposit-taking NBFCs in the Middle, Upper, and Top Layers, and Core Investment Companies (CICs).
Discretionary Actions
In addition to mandatory restrictions, the RBI retains discretionary powers under PCA to advise management changes, order special audits, or recommend bank merger/amalgamation.
08
With reference to road infrastructure procurement and financing models in India, consider the following statements:
- Under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the government bears the commercial traffic risk while collecting tolls directly from highway users.
- Under HAM, the post-commissioning annuity payments made to the private concessionaire are inflation-indexed to protect against price fluctuations.
- Under the BOT-Annuity model, the private concessionaire collects toll revenues directly from commuters to finance its construction and operational expenses.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
Infrastructure delivery models systematically divide four key risks between the public authority (NHAI/Government) and the private developer: Financing, Construction, Operation & Maintenance (O&M), and Traffic Demand.
While traditional BOT-Toll forces the private player to absorb traffic risk, annuity-based frameworks (BOT-Annuity and HAM) insulate private developers from traffic fluctuations by placing commercial traffic risk entirely on the government.
While traditional BOT-Toll forces the private player to absorb traffic risk, annuity-based frameworks (BOT-Annuity and HAM) insulate private developers from traffic fluctuations by placing commercial traffic risk entirely on the government.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Under HAM (a 40:60 hybrid blend of EPC and BOT-Annuity), the government (NHAI) retains toll collection rights and absorbs 100% of the commercial traffic-demand risk. The private developer is paid fixed bi-annual annuities post-commissioning, regardless of traffic volume.
Statement 2
Correct − To make projects bankable and safeguard private developers against inflation over 15–20 year concession periods, HAM incorporates a Price Index Multiple (PIM) mechanism. Both construction payouts and post-completion annuity/O&M payments are indexed to a combination of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI).
Statement 3
Incorrect − In the BOT-Annuity model, the private developer does not collect tolls from road users. The government collects tolls directly (or waives them) and pays the developer pre-determined, fixed semi-annual annuity payments. Direct user-fee collection by a private concessionaire to recover project investments is the defining feature of BOT-Toll, not BOT-Annuity.
Additional Prelims Facts
Capital Allocation under HAM
The government provides 40% of the project cost as construction-linked grant support in 5 equal tranches. The private developer arranges the remaining 60% via debt and equity.
Interest on Balance Annuity
For the 60% debt/equity portion recovered through annuities over the operational period, the government pays interest on the reducing balance, benchmarked to the RBI Repo Rate plus a specified spread (historically benchmarked to Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate / MCLR).
Comparative Risk Spectrum
BOT-Toll: High Private Risk (Financing + Construction + Traffic Demand Risk)
HAM: Shared/Balanced Risk (Private: Construction & O&M; Government: Traffic & Financing)
EPC: Low Private Risk (Private: Design & Construction; Government: 100% Financing & Traffic)
HAM: Shared/Balanced Risk (Private: Construction & O&M; Government: Traffic & Financing)
EPC: Low Private Risk (Private: Design & Construction; Government: 100% Financing & Traffic)
09
With reference to the regulatory and protective framework for the handloom sector in India, which of the following best describes the core mandate of the ‘Hank Yarn Obligation’ (HYO) mechanism?
The correct answer is (b).
Core Concept
Core Concept
Protection of the handloom sector operates on two distinct fronts:
Output/Market Protection: Mechanisms like the Handlooms (Reservation of Articles for Production) Act, 1985, Handloom Mark, and Geographical Indications (GI) protect the finished product from powerloom encroachment.
Input/Raw Material Protection: Handloom weavers require yarn packed in hank form (skeins/reels suitable for manual warping and dyeing), whereas automated powerlooms use cone form. Because manufacturing cone yarn is faster and cheaper for spinning mills, market forces naturally cause mills to divert raw material toward powerlooms. The Hank Yarn Obligation (HYO) is a statutory intervention that mandates spinning mills to supply a fixed proportion of yarn in hank form to prevent raw material starvation in the handloom sector.
Output/Market Protection: Mechanisms like the Handlooms (Reservation of Articles for Production) Act, 1985, Handloom Mark, and Geographical Indications (GI) protect the finished product from powerloom encroachment.
Input/Raw Material Protection: Handloom weavers require yarn packed in hank form (skeins/reels suitable for manual warping and dyeing), whereas automated powerlooms use cone form. Because manufacturing cone yarn is faster and cheaper for spinning mills, market forces naturally cause mills to divert raw material toward powerlooms. The Hank Yarn Obligation (HYO) is a statutory intervention that mandates spinning mills to supply a fixed proportion of yarn in hank form to prevent raw material starvation in the handloom sector.
Options Analysis
Option (a)
Option (a) is incorrect: HYO does not impose purchasing quotas on handloom cooperatives; it imposes a production/packing obligation on yarn manufacturers (spinning mills).
Option (b)
Option (b) is correct: Under the HYO framework, producers of yarn (spinning mills) are legally obligated to pack a specified minimum percentage (currently 30%, historically 40%–50%) of their yarn intended for civil delivery in the form of hanks. This ensures a steady, dedicated supply of suitable raw material to traditional handloom weavers.
Option (c)
Option (c) is incorrect: Powerlooms operate on high-speed automated systems designed for cone yarn. Forcing powerlooms to use hank yarn would be technologically incompatible and is not the function of HYO.
Option (d)
Option (d) is incorrect: Freight subsidies on yarn are governed under operational schemes such as the Raw Material Supply Scheme (RMSS) implemented via the National Handloom Development Corporation (NHDC), not under the statutory HYO mandate.
Additional Prelims Facts
Statutory Authority
The Hank Yarn Obligation is enforced under the Textile (Development and Regulation) Order, promulgated under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Enforcement Body
Compliance and monitoring of the Hank Yarn Obligation are overseen by the Office of the Textile Commissioner under the Ministry of Textiles.
Dual Safeguard Framework
Input Side (HYO): Guarantees availability of yarn in handloom-compatible packaging (hank form).
Output Side (Reservation Act, 1985): Protects 11 specified textile articles (e.g., Saree, Dhoti, Towel/Gamcha, Lungi, Jamdani) from unauthorized production on powerlooms.
Output Side (Reservation Act, 1985): Protects 11 specified textile articles (e.g., Saree, Dhoti, Towel/Gamcha, Lungi, Jamdani) from unauthorized production on powerlooms.
10
With reference to Manas Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
- Its officially recorded buffer area is larger than its core area.
- Its inscription on the UNESCO World Heritage List is by itself the principal source of enforceable domestic land and wildlife protection within the reserve.
- Its ecological landscape is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (a) 1 and 3 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
A protected landscape may carry several overlapping designations, including national park, tiger reserve, biosphere reserve and World Heritage Site. These designations arise from distinct domestic statutes, government notifications and international frameworks.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − The National Tiger Conservation Authority records a core area of 526.22 sq. km and a buffer area of 2,310.88 sq. km for Manas, giving a total tiger-reserve area of 2,837.10 sq. km.
Statement 2
Incorrect − World Heritage inscription provides international recognition and monitoring. Enforceable domestic protection primarily arises from Indian legislation and notifications, including the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and applicable forest laws.
Statement 3
Correct − Manas adjoins the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan, creating an ecologically connected transboundary landscape.
Additional Prelims Facts
Multiple designations
Manas has national and international designations that include National Park, Tiger Reserve, Biosphere Reserve, Elephant Reserve and World Heritage Site.
Core status
The core area of Manas Tiger Reserve has the status of a national park.
World Heritage property
The UNESCO-listed Manas Wildlife Sanctuary forms part of the broader Manas Tiger Reserve rather than covering the entire tiger-reserve area.
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