01
Consider the following statements regarding Earth observation satellites:
- Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) can penetrate cloud cover and operate at night because it uses active microwave sensing.
- Satellites in Sun-Synchronous Orbits (SSO) pass over a given location at the same local solar time on every pass.
- Hyperspectral satellites provide higher temporal resolution than multispectral satellites due to their narrow spectral bands.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Core Concept
Core Concept
Satellite utility depends on three distinct factors: sensing mode (active microwave vs. passive optical), orbital geometry (SSO for fixed solar angles), and resolution types (spectral detail vs. revisit rate). High spectral resolution does not grant higher temporal frequency.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − SAR emits its own microwave signal (active sensing), allowing all-weather, day-and-night imaging through clouds, smoke, and darkness.
Statement 2
Correct − SSO maintains a constant position relative to the Sun, ensuring identical solar illumination and shadow angles across passes.
Statement 3
Incorrect − Continuous narrow bands increase spectral resolution (identifying material composition), whereas temporal resolution (revisit frequency) is governed by orbit mechanics and sensor swath width.
Additional Prelims Facts
NISAR Mission
A joint ISRO-NASA mission featuring dual-frequency (L-band and S-band) active SAR in LEO for global land surface change mapping.
SSO Operational Altitude
SSO Earth observation satellites operate in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at typical altitudes of 600–800 km.
Hyperspectral vs. Multispectral
Multispectral sensors record 3–10 broad wavelength bands, while hyperspectral sensors record hundreds of contiguous narrow bands for detailed biochemical identification.
02
With reference to foodgrain entitlements under the National Food Security Act, 2013 and the Draft National Food Security (Amendment) Bill, 2026, consider the following statements:
- Antyodaya Anna Yojana households are presently entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per household per month.
- Priority households are presently entitled to 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month.
- The 2026 proposal has already replaced the Antyodaya entitlement with an unlimited entitlement of 7 kg per person per month.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
The NFSA distinguishes between a household-based entitlement for AAY households and a per-person entitlement for priority households. The 2026 change discussed in the Digest is a draft amendment, not the operative statutory rule.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Existing AAY households, representing the poorest category under the TPDS architecture, are legally entitled to 35 kg per household per month.
Statement 2
Correct − Priority households receive 5 kg per person per month under the existing NFSA entitlement framework.
Statement 3
Incorrect − The 2026 measure remains a draft. It proposes 7 kg per AAY member subject to a maximum of 35 kg per household, rather than an unlimited per-person entitlement.
Additional Prelims Facts
NFSA Coverage
The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population under the eligible-household framework.
Free Foodgrains
The quantity entitlement under the NFSA and the issue price are distinct matters; eligible AAY and priority-household beneficiaries are currently receiving their statutory quantities free of cost under the continuing free-foodgrain policy.
03
Consider the following pairs regarding Supreme Court Constitutional Provisions:
1. Article 141 − Power to issue orders necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter
2. Article 144 − Obligation on civil and judicial authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court
3. Article 145 − Power of Supreme Court to frame procedural rules, subject to approval of the President
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(b) Only two
Core Concept
Core Concept
The Constitution establishes the Supreme Court as a self-regulating, supreme judicial authority, but enforces subtle institutional checks: judicial decisions are binding (Art 141), decrees are enforceable for complete justice (Art 142), state machinery must assist enforcement (Art 144), and internal procedural rules require Presidential assent (Art 145).
Pair-wise Analysis
Pair 1
Incorrectly Matched − The power to pass decrees or orders for doing “complete justice” is granted under Article 142, not Article 141. Article 141 declares that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within India.
Pair 2
Correctly Matched − Article 144 mandates that all authorities—civil and judicial—throughout the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court to ensure its orders are enforced.
Pair 3
Correctly Matched − Under Article 145(1), while the Supreme Court frames its own procedural rules, this power is explicitly subject to two checks: laws made by Parliament and the approval of the President of India.
Additional Prelims Facts
Article 139A
Empowers the Supreme Court to transfer cases from High Courts to itself if cases involving substantially the same questions of law are pending before both.
Court of Record (Article 129)
The Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself, and its proceedings are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony.
Review Jurisdiction (Article 137)
Subject to Parliamentary law or rules under Article 145, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
04
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): Implementation of central labour legislation in India may also require State-specific rules and notifications.
Reason (R): Labour matters are substantially located in the Concurrent List, permitting both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate subject to constitutional rules governing inconsistency between Union and State laws.
Which one of the following is correct?
The correct answer is (a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Core Concept
Core Concept
India’s four Labour Codes are central enactments, but labour is substantially a Concurrent List field. Accordingly, State-level rule-making remains relevant within the statutory and constitutional allocation of competence. The Digest notes that the central rules were notified in May 2026 while State and Union Territory rule-making was also part of implementation.
Assertion–Reason Analysis
Assertion
Correct − Central labour-law consolidation does not eliminate every State-level regulatory role; applicable State rules and notifications remain important for implementation.
Reason
Correct − The Concurrent List permits legislation by both levels of government, subject to constitutional rules including those governing repugnancy.
Relationship
R correctly explains A − The constitutional distribution of legislative competence explains why implementation of centrally enacted Labour Codes can involve both central and State rule-making.
Additional Prelims Facts
Four Labour Codes
The consolidated framework comprises the Code on Wages, 2019; Industrial Relations Code, 2020; Code on Social Security, 2020; and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020.
Inspector-cum-Facilitator
The new framework retains inspection and enforcement while expressly incorporating a facilitation function; “facilitator” does not mean abolition of inspection powers.
05
With reference to India’s private space-sector framework, consider the following statements:
- Vikram-I was the first orbital launch undertaken by a private Indian company from Indian soil.
- IN-SPACe promotes and authorises specified non-governmental space activities and facilitates access to public space infrastructure.
- A sub-orbital launch necessarily completes at least one revolution around the Earth.
- ISRO and IN-SPACe perform identical institutional functions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (c) 1 and 2 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
India’s post-2020 space framework separates the development and mission role of ISRO from the promotion and authorisation role of IN-SPACe for non-governmental entities. Vikram-I demonstrated private orbital capability, following Skyroot’s earlier Vikram-S sub-orbital mission.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − ISRO identifies the July 18, 2026 Vikram-I mission as the first time a private Indian company undertook an orbital rocket launch from Indian soil.
Statement 2
Correct − IN-SPACe functions as the single-window agency for promoting, enabling, authorising and supervising specified space activities of non-governmental entities and facilitating access to Department of Space infrastructure.
Statement 3
Incorrect − A sub-orbital trajectory does not complete a sustained orbit around Earth. Vikram-S was sub-orbital; Vikram-I inserted payloads into Low Earth Orbit.
Statement 4
Incorrect − ISRO develops space technology and conducts national missions, whereas IN-SPACe has a distinct promotion, authorisation and facilitation role for non-governmental activity.
Additional Prelims Facts
Vikram-I Configuration
The launch vehicle has four stages—three solid stages followed by a liquid upper stage.
Public-Private Interface
A privately developed launch vehicle can use government launch and testing facilities without ceasing to be privately developed; vehicle ownership, launch-site ownership and regulatory authority are distinct concepts.
06
With reference to India’s disaster-financing framework, consider the following statements:
- The State Disaster Response Fund is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- Heatwave and lightning are included among the centrally notified disasters covered under the current SDRF framework.
- Their inclusion necessarily required amendment of a statutory schedule of hazards contained in the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- States may, subject to prescribed conditions, use up to 10% of SDRF resources for certain locally notified disasters not appearing on the central list.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 4 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
The SDRF is the primary State-level fund for immediate relief in notified disasters. The 2026-31 framework added heatwave and lightning to the central notified list, but this did not amount to insertion of those hazards into a fixed statutory schedule in the Disaster Management Act.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − SDRF is constituted under Section 48(1)(a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
Statement 2
Correct − The current central list includes heatwave and lightning along with hazards such as cyclone, drought, flood, earthquake and cloudburst.
Statement 3
Incorrect − The notified calamity list operates through the disaster-finance framework and guidelines; the 2026 development should not be described as an amendment to a statutory hazard schedule in the Act.
Statement 4
Correct − States can use up to 10% of SDRF resources for specified locally important disasters outside the centrally notified list, subject to prescribed State notification and norms.
Additional Prelims Facts
Response Fund Purpose
SDRF finances immediate relief; it should not be confused with the separately constituted disaster-mitigation funds used for risk-reduction activities.
Centre’s Contribution
The Union contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for general-category States and 90% for specified northeastern and Himalayan States.
07
With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Framework, consider the following statements:
- The PCA framework applies to both Scheduled Commercial Banks and designated Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
- Capital adequacy, asset quality, and leverage are key financial indicators monitored to trigger PCA threshold actions.
- Once placed under the PCA framework, a financial entity’s operating license is automatically cancelled if it fails to exit the framework within two years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Core Concept
Core Concept
The PCA Framework is an early-intervention supervisory mechanism designed to restore the financial health of troubled financial institutions before they become insolvent. It enforces mandatory restrictions (e.g., on dividend payouts, branch expansion, and capital expenditure) rather than acting as an automatic winding-up mechanism.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Introduced initially for Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) in 2002, the RBI extended the PCA framework to middle, upper, and top-layer NBFCs (including government NBFCs) to strengthen financial stability.
Statement 2
Correct − The RBI monitors key ratios under three primary parameters—Capital Adequacy Ratio (CRAR), Asset Quality (Net NPA ratio), and Leverage/Tier-1 Capital Ratio—to determine PCA risk thresholds.
Statement 3
Incorrect − PCA is a corrective tool to prevent bank failure, not a liquidation tool. It imposes operational restrictions (e.g., stopping branch expansion or variable pay) and requires promoters to infuse capital. License revocation is a separate legal process under the Banking Regulation Act and does not occur automatically after two years.
Additional Prelims Facts
Excluded Entities
Payments Banks, Small Finance Banks, and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are currently outside the standard SCB PCA framework.
Exit Conditions
A supervised entity can exit PCA if no threshold breaches occur across four continuous quarterly financial statements (including one audited annual statement), subject to RBI supervisory comfort.
Mandatory vs. Discretionary Actions
Mandatory actions kick in automatically upon threshold breaches (e.g., dividend restrictions), while discretionary actions allow RBI to replace management, audit operations, or restrict market borrowings.
08
With reference to the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) framework of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
- The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) enables the RBI to absorb surplus liquidity from commercial banks without providing government securities as collateral.
- The SDF rate serves as the ceiling of the LAF corridor, operating at a rate higher than the main Repo rate.
- The SDF allows banks to deposit excess overnight funds with the RBI at their own discretion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
Core Concept
Core Concept
The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is an uncollateralized liquidity absorption instrument. Unlike the traditional Reverse Repo facility—which requires the RBI to pledge government securities to banks in exchange for cash—SDF allows the central bank to absorb unlimited surplus systemic liquidity without depleting its inventory of government securities.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − SDF is explicitly designed as an uncollateralized tool, enabling liquidity absorption without G-sec collateral constraints.
Statement 2
Incorrect − SDF forms the floor of the LAF corridor (25 bps below the Repo rate). The ceiling of the corridor is formed by the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF), which sits 25 bps above the Repo rate.
Statement 3
Correct − Being a standing facility, access to SDF is available to eligible commercial banks at their option/discretion on a continuous basis for overnight funds.
Additional Prelims Facts
Origin
The Urjit Patel Committee (2014) first recommended introducing the SDF as a collateral-free liquidity absorption tool.
LAF Corridor Structure
Ceiling: Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) = Repo Rate + 0.25%
Target/Policy Rate: Repo Rate
Floor: Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) = Repo Rate − 0.25%
SDF vs. Fixed Rate Reverse Repo (FRRR)
SDF replaced FRRR as the primary floor of the LAF corridor, making liquidity management flexible during periods of extreme systemic cash surges (e.g., post-demonestisation or heavy capital inflows).
09
With reference to the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), consider the following statements:
- Rule 149 of the General Financial Rules makes procurement through GeM mandatory for Central Ministries and Departments for goods and services available on the platform.
- Procurement through GeM automatically exempts government buyers from ordinary financial-control and audit requirements.
- In a reverse auction, competing sellers generally lower their offered prices.
- Gross Merchandise Value processed through GeM represents the platform’s own revenue.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
The correct answer is (b) 1 and 3 only.
Core Concept
Core Concept
GeM digitises public procurement but operates within, rather than outside, the public-finance framework. Rule 149 of the GFR requires Central Ministries and Departments to use GeM for available common goods and services, while procurement methods can include comparison, bidding and reverse auction.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Rule 149 makes procurement through GeM mandatory for Central Government Ministries and Departments for goods and services available on the platform.
Statement 2
Incorrect − Digital procurement does not abolish delegated financial powers, competition requirements, reasonableness checks, sanction or audit responsibilities.
Statement 3
Correct − In a reverse auction, qualified sellers compete by reducing their offered price, unlike a conventional auction in which bids typically rise.
Statement 4
Incorrect − GMV measures the value of transactions processed through the marketplace; it is not equivalent to GeM’s revenue or profit.
Additional Prelims Facts
Institutional Form
GeM SPV was incorporated in 2017 as a Section 8 non-profit company under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to manage and maintain the platform.
Inclusive Procurement
GeM also seeks wider participation by MSEs, startups, women entrepreneurs and other underserved seller categories.
10
With reference to nuclear reactor technologies and India’s nuclear power program, consider the following statements:
- Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) rely primarily on passive safety systems that utilize gravity and natural circulation without requiring external electrical power.
- Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) in Stage 2 of India’s nuclear program use liquid sodium as a coolant and operate without a neutron moderator.
- All nuclear reactors in India using domestic natural uranium are mandatorily placed under IAEA safeguards, whereas reactors using imported uranium are exempt.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Core Concept
Core Concept
Nuclear reactor classification depends on neutron speed (thermal vs. fast), coolant/moderator pairings, and safety mechanisms. Passive safety allows SMRs to shut down safely during power loss, while Fast Breeder Reactors eliminate moderators to maintain high-energy neutrons for fuel breeding. IAEA safeguards apply to imported fuel and declared civilian facilities, not all domestic facilities.
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − SMRs incorporate inherent passive safety features (e.g., gravity-fed coolant, decay heat removal via natural convection), allowing automatic shutdown without operator action or external power during accidents.
Statement 2
Correct − FBRs (Stage 2) require high-energy “fast” neutrons to convert non-fissile Uranium-238 into fissile Plutonium-239. Therefore, they do not use a moderator (which slows down neutrons) and use liquid sodium as a primary coolant for its high thermal conductivity.
Statement 3
Incorrect − The logic is inverted. Under India’s civil-military separation plan and IAEA agreement, reactors utilizing imported fuel or designated as civilian are mandatorily subject to IAEA safeguards. Facilities using indigenous uranium under military/un-safeguarded programs are not subject to IAEA inspection.
Additional Prelims Facts
Three-Stage Nuclear Program
Stage 1 (PHWR): Natural Uranium fuel + Heavy Water moderator/coolant → produces Plutonium-239.
Stage 2 (FBR): Pu-239 / MOX fuel + Liquid Sodium coolant (No moderator) → breeds more Pu-239 and U-233 from Thorium.
Stage 3 (AHWR): Thorium-232 / Uranium-233 fuel systems.
PFBR Kalpakkam
Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (500 MWe) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, represents the transition from Stage 1 to Stage 2.
Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)
Defined by the IAEA as reactors producing up to 300 MWe per unit, capable of factory fabrication and module transport to site.
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