1. It facilitates real-time intelligence sharing among central and state security agencies.
2. It was created after the Kargil conflict to address structural gaps in intelligence flow.
3. It exercises direct operational control over counter-terror investigations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statements 1 and 2 – Correct: MAC enables continuous and real-time intelligence sharing between Central and State agencies. It was established following the Kargil Review Committee (2000), which highlighted major gaps in India’s intelligence architecture.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: MAC functions only as an intelligence coordination and dissemination platform. It does not have operational or investigative powers, which remain with agencies such as the NIA, IB, State Police and other authorised bodies.
1. It is empowered to take up investigations across India without requiring prior consent of the State Government.
2. It can investigate offences committed outside India if such cases involve Indian citizens or interests.
3. It is the nodal body for inter-agency intelligence coordination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: Following the 2019 amendment, the NIA can initiate investigations suo motu anywhere in India without the need for prior consent of the State Government.
Statement 2 – Correct: Amendments to the NIA Act allow the agency to investigate scheduled offences committed outside India if the act involves Indian citizens or affects India’s interests.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Intelligence coordination roles lie with bodies such as MAC and NATGRID. The NIA is primarily an investigative agency, not the nodal intelligence coordination platform.
1. The scheme aims to establish an integrated domestic manufacturing ecosystem that covers oxide-to-metal conversion, alloy production, and finished magnet fabrication.
2. REPMs such as NdFeB and SmCo are preferred over ferrite magnets due to their higher coercivity and ability to deliver high magnetic output in compact sizes.
3. The scheme is primarily designed to boost India’s semiconductor fabrication capacity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: The scheme promotes an integrated domestic REPM value chain, covering oxide-to-metal conversion, alloy production, and fabrication of finished sintered magnets.
Statement 2 – Correct: Rare Earth Permanent Magnets such as NdFeB and SmCo provide high coercivity, excellent magnetic strength, and compact size, making them superior to ferrite magnets.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: The scheme is focused on advanced magnet manufacturing for strategic technologies and does not relate to semiconductor fabrication.
1. They significantly increase the power density and efficiency of electric vehicle (EV) traction motors.
2. They reduce dependence on lithium-ion batteries by directly replacing battery modules in EVs.
3. Their high magnetic strength allows miniaturisation of high-performance automotive components.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: NdFeB rare-earth magnets are critical for high-efficiency EV traction motors, significantly improving torque output, acceleration, and driving range.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: REPMs do not replace lithium-ion batteries. They are used in motors, steering systems, regenerative braking and other automotive subsystems, but battery modules remain essential.
Statement 3 – Correct: Their high magnetic strength enables miniaturisation and lightweighting of high-performance automotive components.
Why (b) is correct: The CEC is a Supreme Court–constituted monitoring body tasked with fact-finding, compliance verification and technical assessments; it does not issue binding judicial orders. The NGT, created under the NGT Act, 2010, is a statutory quasi-judicial tribunal empowered to hear environmental cases, enforce laws, pass binding orders, and award compensation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
(a) Incorrect: NGT is not an advisory body; it has adjudicatory powers.
(c) Incorrect: CEC has no adjudicatory authority, let alone wider powers than the NGT.
(d) Incorrect: Their jurisdictions differ fundamentally—CEC supports the Supreme Court, while NGT operates under statutory environmental law.
1. It was constituted by the Supreme Court in connection with the T.N. Godavarman case.
2. It primarily performs technical, fact-verification and compliance-monitoring work for the Supreme Court.
3. It has statutory authority to adjudicate original environmental disputes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: The CEC was constituted in 2002 by the Supreme Court during proceedings in the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad (1995) forest-conservation case.
Statement 2 – Correct: The CEC undertakes technical assessments, site inspections, fact verification and compliance monitoring, submitting reports directly to the Supreme Court to aid its supervisory jurisdiction in forest and environmental matters.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: The CEC has no quasi-judicial authority and cannot adjudicate environmental disputes. Original jurisdiction for environmental cases lies exclusively with the National Green Tribunal (NGT) under the NGT Act, 2010.
| List–I (Term) | List–II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. Crawling Peg | 1. Adjustments to the exchange rate are pre-announced and based on indicators such as inflation. |
| B. Crawl-like Arrangement | 3. Exchange rate stays within a narrow band around a trend for a sustained period, even without a declared crawling policy. |
| C. Managed Float | 2. Exchange rate generally follows market forces, but the central bank intervenes to prevent excessive volatility. |
Codes:
A → 1 (Correct): A crawling peg involves pre-announced, rule-based adjustments to the exchange rate, often based on indicators such as inflation differentials.
B → 3 (Correct): A crawl-like arrangement is an IMF-classified pattern where the exchange rate stays within a narrow trend band for six months or more, even without an officially declared crawling policy.
C → 2 (Correct): A managed float system—followed by India—allows the market to determine the exchange rate while permitting central bank intervention to smooth excessive volatility.
1. They form the legal basis under which the IMF conducts Article IV surveillance, including classification of members’ exchange-rate regimes.
2. They include provisions governing the creation, allocation, and use of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs).
3. They prohibit member countries from following any form of managed or market-based exchange-rate arrangements.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: Article IV of the IMF’s Articles of Agreement provides the legal foundation for surveillance of members’ external stability, including the IMF’s classification of exchange-rate arrangements such as floating, crawl-like, fixed, and pegged regimes.
Statement 2 – Correct: The Articles explicitly lay down the rules governing Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), including their creation, allocation, valuation and use as international reserve assets.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: The IMF does not restrict members to a single exchange-rate system. Members are free to adopt managed, market-based or fixed arrangements, except pegging currencies directly to gold.
Reason (R): Resistance can develop and circulate through environmental pathways and animal-use antibiotics, which can transfer resistant bacteria or genes to human populations.
Which one of the following is correct?
Assertion – Correct: AMR spreads even without direct human misuse of antibiotics. Resistant microbes travel through food chains, water systems, animal waste, livestock, aquaculture and contaminated environments. Hence, surveillance must be strengthened even when human antibiotic consumption is well-regulated.
Reason – Correct: Antibiotics used in animals, aquaculture, and agriculture — as well as environmental contamination — create selective pressure that generates resistant strains. These can transfer resistance genes to human pathogens.
R explains A: Since resistance can originate and circulate outside human antibiotic use, strong surveillance across human, animal, food and environmental sectors becomes essential. This fully explains the assertion.
1. The Red Line Campaign aims to discourage the non-prescription sale and consumption of antibiotics.
2. The ban on colistin use in food-producing animals is intended to preserve the effectiveness of this critical antibiotic for human treatment.
3. Schedule H1 regulations require pharmacies to maintain records of antibiotic sales to prevent over-the-counter misuse.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: The Red Line Campaign marks antibiotic packaging with a prominent red line to warn users that these medicines must not be bought or consumed without a doctor’s prescription, helping curb self-medication and misuse.
Statement 2 – Correct: Colistin is a last-resort antibiotic used for life-threatening infections. Its ban in food-producing animals prevents the emergence of colistin-resistant bacteria, thereby protecting its medical effectiveness.
Statement 3 – Correct: Schedule H1 mandates that pharmacies maintain a dedicated register of antibiotic sales. This ensures traceability, discourages over-the-counter dispensing, and strengthens regulatory oversight.