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Home » UPSC Prelims Quiz » UPSC Prelims Quiz: July 21, 2026

UPSC Prelims Quiz: July 21, 2026

Today’s quiz connects anti-defection rules, judicial strength, women’s representation, trade agreements, electric mobility and Indian Ocean cooperation with relevant constitutional, economic and geographical concepts. The questions require close evaluation of legal thresholds, institutional distinctions and technical terminology.

Q1. With reference to the anti-defection law, consider the following statements:

1. A formal resignation from the political party is essential before a member can be held to have voluntarily given up membership.

2. The presiding officer decides questions of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.

3. The exemption for a split supported by one-third of the legislature party was removed by the 91st Constitutional Amendment.

4. A merger requires the support of at least two-thirds of the legislature party.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2, 3 and 4 only

(c)

1, 3 and 4 only

(d)

2 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect: Voluntarily giving up party membership can be inferred from a legislator’s conduct. A formal resignation is not indispensable.

Statement 2 – Correct: The Speaker or Chairman decides disqualification questions under the Tenth Schedule, subject to judicial review.

Statement 3 – Correct: The 91st Constitutional Amendment removed the protection previously available to splits involving at least one-third of the legislature party.

Statement 4 – Correct: At least two-thirds of the legislature party must agree to a merger for the exemption to apply.

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q2. With reference to the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution fixes an immutable maximum strength for the Supreme Court.

2. Parliament may increase the number of Supreme Court judges through ordinary legislation.

3. A Constitution Bench must consist of at least five judges.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1 and 2 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 124 allows Parliament to prescribe a larger number of judges. The Constitution does not fix an immutable maximum strength for the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 – Correct: Parliament alters the sanctioned numerical strength of the Supreme Court through ordinary legislation.

Statement 3 – Correct: Article 145 requires at least five judges for cases involving a substantial question of constitutional interpretation.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q3. With reference to the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, consider the following statements:

1. It provides reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

2. It applies within seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

3. It provides identical reservation in the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils.

4. Its implementation is linked to a census and subsequent delimitation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1, 2 and 4 only

(b)

1 and 3 only

(c)

2, 3 and 4 only

(d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: The amendment covers the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and the Delhi Legislative Assembly.

Statement 2 – Correct: One-third reservation for women applies within the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils are not covered by the amendment.

Statement 4 – Correct: Article 334A links the commencement of reservation to a census conducted after the amendment and the subsequent delimitation exercise.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q4. With reference to preferential trade agreements, consider the following statements:

1. Rules of origin determine whether a product qualifies for preferential tariff treatment.

2. A tariff-rate quota applies the same tariff irrespective of the imported quantity.

3. Sanitary and phytosanitary measures concern human, animal or plant health.

4. Zero-duty market access automatically removes technical and environmental compliance requirements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1 and 3 only

(b)

1, 2 and 4 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: Rules of origin establish the economic nationality of goods for determining eligibility for preferential tariff treatment.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: A tariff-rate quota applies a lower tariff to imports within the quota and a higher tariff to imports exceeding the quota.

Statement 3 – Correct: Sanitary and phytosanitary (SPS) measures protect human, animal and plant life or health from specified risks.

Statement 4 – Incorrect: Technical, safety, environmental and certification requirements may continue to apply even when customs duties are eliminated.

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Q5. Consider the following statements about electric mobility:

1. An electric vehicle necessarily has zero lifecycle greenhouse-gas emissions.

2. Regenerative braking can convert part of a vehicle’s kinetic energy into electrical energy.

3. Battery swapping may reduce vehicle downtime but requires interoperability and safety standards.

4. A higher number of registered EVs necessarily proves that urban transport emissions have declined.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1 and 4 only

(b)

2 and 3 only

(c)

1, 2 and 3 only

(d)

2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 – Incorrect: Electricity generation, battery manufacture and disposal can produce lifecycle greenhouse-gas emissions.

Statement 2 – Correct: Regenerative braking recovers part of the vehicle’s kinetic energy and converts it into electrical energy.

Statement 3 – Correct: Effective battery swapping requires compatible batteries, connectors, communication protocols and safety standards.

Statement 4 – Incorrect: Emission outcomes depend on electricity sources, vehicle use, occupancy and the journeys displaced, not merely on the number of registered EVs.

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q6. Consider the following pairs:
FeatureAssociated place or institution
1. MahéSeychelles
2. VictoriaCapital of Seychelles
3. Blue bondFinancing sustainable marine activity
4. IORA SecretariatVictoria

How many pairs are correctly matched?

(a)

Only one

(b)

Only two

(c)

Only three

(d)

All four

Explanation

Pair 1 – Correct: Mahé is the largest and most populous island of Seychelles.

Pair 2 – Correct: Victoria, situated on Mahé, is the capital of Seychelles.

Pair 3 – Correct: Blue bonds raise finance for sustainable ocean and marine-resource projects.

Pair 4 – Incorrect: The IORA Secretariat is located in Ebene, Mauritius, not Victoria.

Answer: (c) Only three
Q7. With reference to physical geography, consider the following statements:

1. The Terai generally lies south of the porous Bhabar belt.

2. Melting freely floating ice has a much smaller direct sea-level effect than melting grounded continental ice.

3. The Antarctic Circumpolar Current flows westward around Antarctica.

4. Pore-water pressure can increase when soil becomes saturated, reducing slope stability.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)

1, 2 and 4 only

(b)

1 and 3 only

(c)

2, 3 and 4 only

(d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct: The Terai lies south of the Bhabar and receives re-emerging groundwater from its porous deposits.

Statement 2 – Correct: Floating ice already displaces water, while grounded continental ice adds new water to the ocean when it melts.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Antarctic Circumpolar Current flows eastward, not westward, around Antarctica.

Statement 4 – Correct: Higher pore-water pressure reduces effective friction and can contribute to slope failure.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
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