Q1. With reference to the office of the Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution mandates that a vacancy in the office of the Vice-President must be filled within six months.
2. Both elected and nominated members of Parliament participate in the election of the Vice-President.
3. State legislatures have no role in the election of the Vice-President.
4. The Constitution makes explicit provision for the appointment of an acting Vice-President in case of a temporary vacancy.
2. Both elected and nominated members of Parliament participate in the election of the Vice-President.
3. State legislatures have no role in the election of the Vice-President.
4. The Constitution makes explicit provision for the appointment of an acting Vice-President in case of a temporary vacancy.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Statement 1 – Incorrect:
Unlike the President, where a vacancy must be filled within six months (Article 62), no such time limit exists for the Vice-President’s election. The only requirement under Article 68(2) is that the election be held “as soon as possible.”
Unlike the President, where a vacancy must be filled within six months (Article 62), no such time limit exists for the Vice-President’s election. The only requirement under Article 68(2) is that the election be held “as soon as possible.”
Statement 2 – Correct:
The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, including nominated members. This differs from the Presidential election where nominated members do not vote.
The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, including nominated members. This differs from the Presidential election where nominated members do not vote.
Statement 3 – Correct:
State legislatures do not participate in the election of the Vice-President, unlike the case with the President.
State legislatures do not participate in the election of the Vice-President, unlike the case with the President.
Statement 4 – Incorrect:
There is no provision for an ‘acting Vice-President’ in the Constitution. The Constitution is silent on the appointment of an “acting Vice-President”. There is a provision for the Vice-President to act as President in the event of a vacancy in the President’s office, but not vice versa. When the Vice-President’s post is vacant, the duties of the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha are performed by the Deputy Chairman or another authorized member, but this is not the same as appointing an acting Vice-President.
There is no provision for an ‘acting Vice-President’ in the Constitution. The Constitution is silent on the appointment of an “acting Vice-President”. There is a provision for the Vice-President to act as President in the event of a vacancy in the President’s office, but not vice versa. When the Vice-President’s post is vacant, the duties of the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha are performed by the Deputy Chairman or another authorized member, but this is not the same as appointing an acting Vice-President.
✅ Correct Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only
Q2. The report titled “Towards Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India” was released by:
(a) NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(b) World Bank in collaboration with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(c) World Bank in collaboration with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(d) UN-Habitat in collaboration with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Explanation
Recently, the World Bank, in collaboration with the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, has released a report titled Towards Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India. The report estimated that Indian cities will require $2.4 trillion by 2050 to build climate-resilient infrastructure and services.
✅ Correct Answer: c) World Bank in collaboration with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India
The July 2025 report titled “Towards Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India”, jointly released by the World Bank and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India, presents a detailed overview of India’s urban future. As Indian cities expand rapidly, the report highlights both the enormous potential for economic growth and the pressing climate-related challenges that must be urgently addressed.
Urban Population Growth and Job Creation
India’s urban population is projected to nearly double to 951 million by 2050. By 2030, cities are expected to generate nearly 70% of all new employment in the country. However, if unmanaged, this expansion could expose cities to severe environmental and infrastructure stresses—particularly in the form of urban flooding and extreme heat events.
Flooding Risk Intensified by Climate and Urbanization
The report identifies climate change and urban development patterns as key drivers of rising pluvial (stormwater) flooding. By 2070, such flood risks could increase 3.6 to 7 times compared to current levels. Annual losses may rise from $4 billion in 2023 to between $14 and $30 billion, affecting up to 46.4 million urban residents.
Escalating Threat of Heat-Related Deaths
Deadly heatwaves will become more frequent due to global warming and the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect. Annual heat-related deaths could more than double, reaching over 300,000 by 2050. However, timely adaptation—such as urban greening, cool roofs, early warning systems, and adjusted work hours—could save over 130,000 lives.
Urban Heat Island Effect as a Compounding Factor
The UHI effect increases temperatures in dense urban areas by trapping heat. Without mitigation, its impact will worsen with more frequent and intense heatwaves, posing risks to public health and productivity.
Strategic Policy Recommendations
The report calls for coordinated efforts at all levels:
- National and State-Level: Strengthen institutions, set adaptation standards, and integrate resilience into policy frameworks.
- Private Sector: Develop financial mechanisms and incentives to attract investment.
- Local Level: Conduct risk assessments and prioritise funding for climate mitigation and adaptation.
Q3. With reference to different types of urban flooding, consider the following pairs:
Type of Flooding : Characteristic Feature
| 1. Pluvial flooding | Overflow of river water due to intense rainfall or snowmelt |
| 2. Coastal flooding | Triggered by storm surges during high tides and low atmospheric pressure |
| 3. Flash flooding | Sudden, short-duration flood events often linked to cloudbursts in mountainous areas |
| 4. Fluvial flooding | Accumulation of rainwater due to overwhelmed drainage systems in urban areas |
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Explanation
Pair 1 – Incorrect: Pluvial flooding does not involve river overflow. It results from heavy rainfall overwhelming soil absorption and drainage systems — surface water accumulation, not river flooding.
Pair 2 – Correct: Coastal flooding is indeed caused by storm surges, high winds, and low atmospheric pressure during high tides — this is a correct match.
Pair 3 – Correct: Flash floods are sudden, short-duration events, often triggered by cloudbursts, especially in Himalayan regions — this is correctly matched.
Pair 4 – Incorrect: Fluvial flooding involves overflow of rivers or water bodies, not rainwater accumulation in streets or drainage. The description given here matches pluvial, not fluvial flooding.
✅ Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Q4. With reference to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. The 12th Schedule of the Constitution was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
2. The Constitution mandates that all 18 functions listed in the 12th Schedule must compulsorily be devolved to ULBs by the State Governments.
3. ULBs have constitutional status but do not enjoy fiscal autonomy unless empowered by the respective State Finance Commissions.
4. The newly announced Urban Challenge Fund is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for capacity building of Gram Panchayats.
2. The Constitution mandates that all 18 functions listed in the 12th Schedule must compulsorily be devolved to ULBs by the State Governments.
3. ULBs have constitutional status but do not enjoy fiscal autonomy unless empowered by the respective State Finance Commissions.
4. The newly announced Urban Challenge Fund is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme for capacity building of Gram Panchayats.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
• Statement 1 – Correct: The 12th Schedule, listing 18 functions for ULBs, was added through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which came into force in 1993.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: While the 74th Amendment expects states to devolve these functions, it does not make it compulsory. In practice, states have devolved these functions to varying extents, and few have fully devolved all 18 functions.
• Statement 3 – Correct: While ULBs have constitutional status post-74th Amendment, their fiscal autonomy depends on the recommendations and implementation of the State Finance Commissions (SFCs).
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Urban Challenge Fund is aimed at urban development, focusing on core infrastructure in cities, not Gram Panchayats (which are rural). It is not directed at Gram Panchayats nor is its main objective capacity building of such rural bodies.
✅ Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Q5. Consider the following pairs regarding constitutional provisions and their relevance to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs):
Constitutional Article / Schedule : Relevance to Urban Governance
| 1. 243Q: | Defines the composition of Gram Sabhas |
| 2. 243X: | Empowers ULBs to levy and collect taxes |
| 3. 243ZF: | Provides for continuity of existing laws post-74th Amendment |
| 4. 12th Schedule: | Lists the duties of the State Election Commission |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation
243Q – Incorrect: This article pertains to classification of municipalities (Municipal Corporations, Municipal Councils, Nagar Panchayats), not Gram Sabhas. Gram Sabhas fall under Article 243A (Part IX – Panchayats).
243X – Correct: This article empowers Municipalities to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, etc., and is essential for their financial sustainability.
243ZF – Correct: Article 243ZF provides for the continuance of existing laws and Municipalities after the commencement of the 74th Constitutional Amendment until new laws are made or existing ones are modified to align with the new constitutional scheme.
12th Schedule – Incorrect: It lists 18 functions that may be assigned to municipalities such as urban planning, water supply, sanitation, etc. The duties of the State Election Commission are outlined in Article 243K, not the 12th Schedule.
✅ Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Q6. With reference to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. The 74th Amendment provides for three types of urban bodies, including Nagar Panchayats.
2. Cities with population above one million must have a Municipal Corporation.
3. The first Municipal Corporation in British India was set up in Madras.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
• Statement 1 – Correct: The 74th Constitutional Amendment introduced three categories of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs): Municipal Corporation (Nagar Nigam), Municipality (Nagar Palika), and Nagar Panchayat. These represent, respectively, large urban areas, smaller urban areas, and areas in transition from rural to urban.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: The 74th Amendment does not mandate that all cities with a population above one million must have a Municipal Corporation. Instead, the actual population threshold for a Municipal Corporation is generally set at 500,000 (5 lakh) by state governments, and the creation of such a body is at the discretion of the state—not an automatic constitutional requirement.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The first Municipal Corporation in India was established in Madras (1688), followed by Bombay and Calcutta in the 18th century.
✅ Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Q7. The High-Level Political Forum (HLPF), often seen in global governance discussions, is primarily associated with which of the following?
(a) Review of international arms control treaties
(b) Implementation of the Paris Agreement on Climate Change
(c) Oversight of the World Bank’s poverty alleviation strategies
(d) Monitoring progress on the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
Explanation
• The High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) is the central platform within the United Nations for the follow-up and review of the 2030 Agenda and its 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• It was established in 2012 at the Rio+20 Conference in the outcome document “The Future We Want”.
• It meets annually under ECOSOC and every four years under the General Assembly at the level of Heads of State.
✅ Correct Answer: (d) Monitoring progress on the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
Q8. Consider the following:
1. Vidyanjali
2. PM e VIDYA
3. DIKSHA
4. e-Jaadui Pitara
5. Shala Siddhi
2. PM e VIDYA
3. DIKSHA
4. e-Jaadui Pitara
5. Shala Siddhi
How many of the above are associated with educational initiatives by the Government of India?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) All five
(d) Only two
Explanation
• Vidyanjali – A Government of India initiative under the Ministry of Education to strengthen government schools by involving community and volunteer support.
• PM e VIDYA – Launched under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan in 2020; aims to ensure multi-modal digital education access through platforms like DIKSHA, SWAYAM, TV channels, and radio.
• DIKSHA – A national platform by the Ministry of Education offering digital learning resources for students, teachers, and parents.
• e-Jaadui Pitara – Developed by NCERT under the Ministry of Education, it focuses on foundational learning for ages 3–8 through AI-powered, play-based methods.
• Shala Siddhi – A school evaluation and improvement program launched by the National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA) under the Ministry of Education.
✅ Correct Answer: (c) All five
Q9. Consider the following pairs of recipients and their countries, with reference to the United Nations Nelson Mandela Prize:
1. Helena Ndume – Namibia
2. Jorge Sampaio – Brazil
3. Marianna Vardinoyannis – Greece
4. Kennedy Odede – Kenya
2. Jorge Sampaio – Brazil
3. Marianna Vardinoyannis – Greece
4. Kennedy Odede – Kenya
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
(d) Only one
Explanation
1. Helena Ndume – Namibia: Correct — A Namibian ophthalmologist known for restoring sight to thousands. She was one of the inaugural recipients in 2015.
2. Jorge Sampaio – Brazil: Incorrect — Jorge Sampaio was actually from Portugal, not Brazil. He was a former President of Portugal and was awarded in 2015.
3. Marianna Vardinoyannis – Greece: Correct — A Greek philanthropist recognized in 2020 for her work in child welfare and health.
4. Kennedy Odede – Kenya: Correct — A Kenyan social entrepreneur and recipient of the 2025 prize, known for community development work through his organization Shining Hope for Communities (SHOFCO).
Correct Answer: (b) Only three
UN Nelson Mandela Prize
The United Nations Nelson Mandela Prize was created by the UN General Assembly in 2014, with the inaugural awards presented in 2015. The prize is a mark of global recognition for exceptional individuals who have committed their lives to the service of humanity.
Selection and Nomination Process
Candidates are nominated by UN member and observer states, intergovernmental bodies, academic institutions, non-governmental organizations, and previous recipients. The prize is awarded once every five years to two individuals—one male and one female—from different geographical regions.
Purpose and Recognition
This prestigious honour celebrates lifelong efforts in advancing reconciliation, fostering social unity, and promoting community development. The award includes a commemorative plaque featuring a citation and a quote by Nelson Mandela, though it does not carry any monetary reward. Current UN personnel are ineligible for consideration.
Past and Recent Recipients
- 2015: Helena Ndume (Namibia) and Jorge Sampaio (Portugal)
- 2020: Marianna Vardinogiannis (Greece) and Morissanda Kouyaté (Guinea)
- 2025: Brenda Reynolds, an Indigenous Canadian social worker, and Kennedy Odede, a Kenyan social activist and entrepreneur
India and the Award
To date, no Indian national has been conferred the UN Nelson Mandela Prize.
Note on Related Award
Separate from this UN honour, the Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion is conferred by the World Health Organization to individuals or institutions making outstanding contributions to public health advocacy. This health-focused award operates independently of the UN Nelson Mandela Prize.
Q10. With reference to the Geelong Treaty, recently seen in news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a bilateral agreement signed under the AUKUS framework.
2. The treaty involves the co-development of nuclear‑powered submarines.
3. The United States is one of its signatories.
2. The treaty involves the co-development of nuclear‑powered submarines.
3. The United States is one of its signatories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 – Correct: The Geelong Treaty is a bilateral agreement signed between Australia and the United Kingdom under AUKUS Pillar I.
Statement 2 – Correct: The central focus of the Geelong Treaty is comprehensive cooperation on the design, construction, operation, and disposal of a new class of nuclear-powered (SSN-AUKUS) submarines for both the UK and Australia.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Although the US is a part of AUKUS, it is not a signatory to the Geelong Treaty, which is strictly between Australia and the UK.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only