01
With reference to nuclear safeguards and international agreements, consider the following statements:
- Under the NPT, Non-Nuclear-Weapon States must accept IAEA Comprehensive Safeguards on all peaceful nuclear activities.
- India’s safeguards agreement with the IAEA is facility-specific rather than Full-Scope.
- An IAEA Additional Protocol grants inspectors access to non-civilian military nuclear sites.
- A U.S. 123 Agreement cannot legally be signed with any nation that is outside the NPT.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (b) Only two (Statements 1 and 2 are correct; Statements 3 and 4 are incorrect)
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Article III of the NPT
mandates full-scope IAEA Comprehensive Safeguards (INFCIRC/153) for
non-nuclear-weapon state parties.
Statement 2
Correct − As a non-NPT state, India
operates under item-specific/facility-specific safeguards
(INFCIRC/754) for designated civilian plants only.
Statement 3
Incorrect − IAEA Additional
Protocols explicitly cover peaceful/civilian nuclear material and
declared facilities; military sites remain strictly outside IAEA
purview.
Statement 4
Incorrect − The US-India 123
Agreement proved that legislative waivers (like the US Hyde Act)
allow 123 agreements with non-NPT states.
02
Consider the following pairs:
- Point Nemo − Oceanic pole of inaccessibility used as a landing zone for controlled spacecraft de-orbiting
- Kessler Syndrome − Cascading collisions of space debris in Low Earth Orbit rendering orbits unusable
- Project NETRA − ISRO’s space situational awareness network to detect hazards to Indian satellites
- Outer Space Treaty (1967) − Grants individual nations sovereign rights over celestial bodies rich in mineral resources
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (c) Only three (Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched; Pair 4 is incorrectly matched)
Pair-wise Analysis
Pair 1: Point Nemo
Correctly Matched − Located in the
South Pacific Ocean, it is the furthest point on Earth from land.
Space agencies routinely direct decommissioned satellites and
stations, including the upcoming de-orbiting of the ISS, to perform
controlled re-entries here to avoid population centres.
Pair 2: Kessler Syndrome
Correctly Matched − Proposed by
NASA scientist Donald Kessler, it describes a scenario where the
density of objects in Low Earth Orbit becomes high enough that
collisions produce a runaway chain reaction of debris, making
satellite operations hazardous.
Pair 3: Project NETRA
Correctly Matched − NEtwork for
space object Tracking and Research Analysis is ISRO’s early warning
system consisting of radars, telescopes, and a control centre to
monitor space debris and safeguard operational Indian space assets.
Pair 4: Outer Space Treaty
Incorrectly Matched − Article II
of the Outer Space Treaty explicitly prohibits national
appropriation: “Outer space, including the moon and other celestial
bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of
sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means.”
03
With reference to the legal framework governing inter-State river water disputes in India, consider the following statements:
- Entry 17 of the State List (Water) is explicitly subject to Entry 56 of the Union List.
- The River Boards Act, 1956 was enacted by Parliament under Article 262 of the Constitution.
- Once notified in the Official Gazette, an Inter-State Water Tribunal award has the force of a Supreme Court decree.
- An aggrieved State can file an original suit under Article 131 in the Supreme Court over river water disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (b) Only two (Statements 1 and 3 are correct; Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect)
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − Entry 17 in the State
List (“Water, that is to say, water supplies…”) explicitly opens
with the clause: “Subject to the provisions of Entry 56 of List I”.
Statement 2
Incorrect − The River Boards
Act, 1956 was enacted under Entry 56 of the Union List
(Inter-State Rivers). It is the Inter-State River Water Disputes
Act, 1956 that was enacted under Article 262.
Statement 3
Correct − Under Section 6(2) of
the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, once published in
the Official Gazette by the Centre, a tribunal’s decision carries
the same force and effect as a decree of the Supreme Court.
Statement 4
Incorrect − Article 131
(Original Jurisdiction) begins with “Subject to the provisions of
this Constitution…”. Article 262 and Section 11 of the ISRWD Act
completely bar all courts, including original suits under Article
131, from hearing inter-State water disputes.
04
With reference to the adjudication of inter-State river water disputes in India, consider the following statements:
Statement-I The Supreme Court of India can entertain Special Leave Petitions (SLPs)
against the final decisions awarded by an Inter-State River Water
Disputes Tribunal, despite the bar on judicial jurisdiction under
Article 262(2).
Statement-II Article 136 confers an overarching constitutional plenary power on the
Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against any determination
made by any tribunal in India, forming part of the basic structure of
the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (a)
Assertion–Reason Analysis
Statement-I
Correct − Although Article 262(2)
and Section 11 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 bar
the jurisdiction of courts over inter-State river water disputes, the
Supreme Court held, most notably in the Cauvery Water Disputes
Tribunal judgment (2018), that once a tribunal has delivered its
final award, a Special Leave Petition under Article 136 against that
award is maintainable.
Statement-II
Correct − Article 136 confers an
extraordinary constitutional power on the Supreme Court to grant
special leave to appeal against judgments, decrees, determinations,
sentences or orders passed by courts or tribunals. The Court has
consistently held that this constitutional appellate jurisdiction
cannot be excluded by an ordinary statute and forms an essential
feature of the constitutional framework.
Explanation
Correct − Statement-II directly
explains Statement-I. The Supreme Court’s power under Article 136
survives despite the statutory and constitutional bar contained in
Article 262(2) and the ISRWD Act. Consequently, while ordinary
judicial jurisdiction over river water disputes is excluded, the
Supreme Court can still entertain Special Leave Petitions against a
tribunal’s final award by exercising its constitutional plenary
appellate jurisdiction.
05
With reference to cloudbursts and meteorological monitoring in India, consider the following statements:
- The IMD defines a cloudburst as rainfall exceeding 100 mm per hour over a 20–30 km² area.
- Cloudburst precipitation originates primarily from stratified Nimbostratus cloud layers.
- Powerful convective updrafts temporarily hold raindrops suspended inside storm clouds before sudden collapse.
- “Mini-cloudburst” is a recognized operational category in the IMD’s official meteorological glossary.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (b) Only two (Statements 1 and 3 are correct; Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect)
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − IMD Standard: A cloudburst is strictly defined as
an intense rainfall event where 100 mm, or 10 cm, of rain falls
within an hour over a localized geographical area of roughly
20–30 km².
Statement 2
Incorrect − Cloud Physics: Cloudbursts are caused by vertically
developed Cumulonimbus clouds, which are towering thunderclouds
extending high into the troposphere. They do not originate primarily
from flat, horizontally layered Nimbostratus clouds.
Statement 3
Correct − Mechanism: Severe updrafts inside cumulonimbus
clouds prevent condensed water droplets from falling immediately.
As the cloud accumulates immense water density, the updraft
eventually fails, causing the cloud to “burst” and release massive
rainfall within a very short period.
Statement 4
Incorrect − Operational Terminology: The India Meteorological
Department has repeatedly clarified that terms such as
“mini-cloudburst” or “micro-cloudburst” are informal media
constructs. They have no scientific or official standing in the
IMD’s operational classifications.
06
Consider the following pairs:
- X-Band Doppler Radar − High-resolution short-range tracking of localized storms in mountain valleys
- Nowcasting − Ultra-short-term weather prediction covering a timeframe of 0 to 6 hours
- Microburst − Prolonged 24-hour widespread rainfall distributed across lowland plains
- Adiabatic Cooling − Temperature increase in an ascending air parcel as ambient pressure drops
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (b) Only two (Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched; Pairs 3 and 4 are incorrectly matched)
Pair-wise Analysis
Pair 1: X-Band Radar
Correctly Matched − X-band Doppler
radars operate at relatively short wavelengths of approximately
2.5–4 cm. Although their effective range is shorter than that of
S-band radars and their signals are more vulnerable to attenuation
in heavy rain, they provide high spatial resolution. This makes them
particularly useful for monitoring rapidly developing localized
storms and intense rainfall within narrow mountain valleys.
Pair 2: Nowcasting
Correctly Matched − Nowcasting
refers to highly localized, ultra-short-range weather forecasting
for the immediate future, generally covering a period of up to six
hours. It relies heavily on near-real-time Doppler radar, satellite,
lightning and surface-observation data to track fast-evolving
systems and issue rapid warnings for thunderstorms, squalls and
localized intense rainfall.
Pair 3: Microburst
Incorrectly Matched − A
microburst is a highly localized and powerful downdraft descending
from a thunderstorm. On striking the ground, the air spreads
outward rapidly and can generate destructive straight-line winds
over a small area. It normally develops and dissipates within a few
minutes and is entirely different from prolonged, widespread
rainfall continuing over 24 hours.
Pair 4: Adiabatic Cooling
Incorrectly Matched − When an
unsaturated air parcel rises, the surrounding atmospheric pressure
decreases. The parcel consequently expands and uses its internal
energy in doing work, causing its temperature to fall without any
direct transfer of heat to the environment. Continued cooling can
bring the air to its dew point, leading to condensation, cloud
formation and the release of latent heat that can strengthen
convective development.
07
With reference to the constitutional and statutory framework governing inter-State river water disputes in India, consider the following statements:
- Article 262 itself excludes the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in all inter-State river water disputes.
- The authority of States over water under Entry 17 of the State List is subject to Parliament’s power under Entry 56 of the Union List.
- River Boards established under the River Boards Act, 1956 can issue binding decisions on water-sharing disputes between States.
- The Supreme Court’s examination of a tribunal decision under Article 136 does not constitute a regular statutory appeal.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Incorrect − Article 262 does not
automatically exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Article 262(2) authorises Parliament to enact a law excluding the
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of
disputes concerning the use, distribution or control of waters of
inter-State rivers or river valleys. The operative statutory bar is
contained in Section 11 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act,
1956.
Statement 2
Correct − Entry 17 of the State
List covers water supplies, irrigation, canals, drainage,
embankments, water storage and water power. However, the entry
expressly makes State authority subject to Entry 56 of the Union
List, under which Parliament may regulate and develop inter-State
rivers and river valleys when such regulation and development are
declared expedient in the public interest.
Statement 3
Incorrect − River Boards
constituted under the River Boards Act, 1956 are advisory
institutions concerned with the regulation and development of
inter-State rivers and river valleys. They may advise governments
on matters such as conservation, irrigation, drainage, flood
control and hydroelectric development, but they do not possess
adjudicatory authority to issue binding decisions on water-sharing
disputes between States.
Statement 4
Correct − The Supreme Court’s
examination of a tribunal decision under Article 136 arises from
its extraordinary constitutional power to grant special leave to
appeal. It is discretionary and does not amount to a regular appeal
created by the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act or any other
ordinary statute. The Court may therefore exercise this
constitutional jurisdiction without treating tribunal awards as
subject to an ordinary statutory appellate process.
08
With reference to the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) and its scientific legacy, consider the following statements:
- The Raman Effect, discovered at IACS, describes the phenomenon where light undergoes a change in its wavelength when scattered by matter.
- C.V. Raman conducted his Nobel Prize-winning research at IACS after resigning from his position as a government officer in Calcutta.
- At present, IACS functions as an autonomous institution under the Department of Science and Technology.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Correct − The Raman Effect,
discovered through research conducted at IACS, concerns the change
in the wavelength of light when it is scattered by matter. A small
fraction of the scattered light emerges with a frequency different
from that of the incident light because energy is exchanged between
the photons and the molecules of the material.
Statement 2
Incorrect − C.V. Raman did not
resign from government service before beginning his research at
IACS. While serving as a government officer in Calcutta, he used the
laboratories of IACS outside his official working hours to conduct
scientific experiments. The statement therefore associates the
correct institution and discovery with an incorrect professional
status and timeline.
Statement 3
Correct − The Indian Association
for the Cultivation of Science presently functions as an autonomous
institution under the Department of Science and Technology. It
continues to undertake advanced research and postgraduate education
across several branches of the physical, chemical and biological
sciences.
09
Consider the following statements regarding statutory mechanisms for resolving inter-state river water conflicts in India:
- River Boards established under the River Boards Act, 1956 are statutory adjudicatory bodies whose awards are legally binding on riparian states.
- Under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, the Central Government can constitute a Water Disputes Tribunal only after receiving a formal request from an affected State Government.
- Union Territories are excluded from being parties or complainants under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: (a) 2 only
Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1
Incorrect − River Boards
established under the River Boards Act, 1956, enacted under Entry
56 of the Union List, are advisory bodies concerned with the
regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys.
They advise governments on matters such as conservation,
irrigation, drainage, flood control and hydroelectric development.
They are not adjudicatory bodies and cannot issue legally binding
awards on water-sharing disputes. Such disputes are adjudicated by
tribunals constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes
Act, 1956.
Statement 2
Correct − Under Section 3 of the
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, an affected State
Government must submit a request to the Central Government stating
that a water dispute has arisen or is likely to arise and that the
interests of the State or its inhabitants are affected. The
statutory process is therefore triggered by a formal request from a
State Government after the dispute cannot be resolved through
negotiations.
Statement 3
Incorrect − Union Territories
are not excluded from the statutory framework. Section 2(c) of the
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 defines “State
Government,” in relation to a Union Territory, as its Administrator.
A Union Territory may therefore participate as a party or
complainant in an inter-State river water dispute. Puducherry’s
participation in the Cauvery water dispute illustrates this
statutory position.
10
Which one of the following best describes the target committed by India under the ‘Panchamrit’ obligations to be achieved by the year 2030?
Correct Answer: (c) Reducing the carbon intensity of the economy by 45% from 2005 levels
Option-wise Analysis
Option (a)
Incorrect − The commitment
concerns a reduction in the emissions intensity of the economy, not
a 45% absolute reduction in India’s total national emissions.
Emissions intensity measures greenhouse-gas emissions relative to
economic output, generally expressed per unit of GDP.
Option (b)
Incorrect − India did not commit
under the Panchamrit framework to completely phase out thermal coal
power plants by 2030. The commitments focus on expanding non-fossil
energy capacity, increasing the share of non-fossil electricity,
reducing projected emissions and lowering emissions intensity.
Option (c)
Correct − India committed to
reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from the
2005 level. This is a relative target linking emissions with
economic output rather than an absolute cap on total national
emissions.
Option (d)
Incorrect − The 500 GW target
refers to installed electricity capacity from non-fossil energy
sources by 2030, not exclusively to solar and wind power. The
non-fossil category also includes sources such as hydropower and
nuclear energy.