1. Gene therapy necessarily uses only viral vectors to deliver therapeutic genes into patient cells.
2. Prime editing enables precise DNA changes without requiring double-strand DNA breaks.
3. CAR-T cell therapy is a gene-modified immunotherapy in which a patient’s T cells are engineered to attack cancer cells.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Incorrect: Viral vectors are commonly used in gene therapy, but they are not the only delivery method. Non-viral delivery methods are also used, so the statement becomes incorrect due to the word “only”.
Statement 2 – Correct: Prime editing is associated with precise DNA changes and does not require double-strand DNA breaks. This distinguishes it from genome-editing approaches that depend on cutting both DNA strands.
Statement 3 – Correct: CAR-T cell therapy is a gene-modified immunotherapy. In this approach, a patient’s T cells are engineered so that they can recognise and attack cancer cells.
Additional Prelims Facts
Casgevy became the first approved CRISPR-based therapy for sickle cell disease.
India launched NexCAR19 in 2024 as its first indigenous CAR-T cell therapy for cancer treatment.
Assertion (A): In India, SDN1 and SDN2 genome-edited plants are treated differently from transgenic GMOs.
Reason (R): SDN1 and SDN2 plants do not necessarily contain foreign DNA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Assertion (A) – Correct: India has eased regulatory requirements for SDN1 and SDN2 genome-edited plants when they are free from exogenous introduced DNA. This makes them distinct from transgenic GMOs in regulatory treatment.
Reason (R) – Correct: SDN1 and SDN2 plants are treated differently because they do not necessarily contain foreign DNA. This is the key basis for distinguishing them from transgenic genetically modified organisms.
R explains A because the absence of exogenous introduced DNA is the reason for the different regulatory treatment of SDN1 and SDN2 genome-edited plants.
Additional Prelims Facts
CRISPR-Cas9 is a leading genome-editing tool and is often described as genetic scissors.
Genome engineering involves inserting, deleting or replacing DNA at specific locations in the genome.
Option (a) – Incorrect: The National Biopharma Mission is not a programme for commercial cultivation of genetically modified crops. Commercial cultivation of GM crops is a separate regulatory issue, and Bt cotton remains India’s only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation.
Option (b) – Incorrect: This describes the Genome India Project more closely, which completed whole-genome sequencing of 10,000 samples and supports the creation of a representative Indian reference genome.
Option (c) – Incorrect: The Department of Biotechnology prepared a Foresight Paper on Synthetic Biology, but the National Biopharma Mission is not described as a regulatory framework for synthetic biology.
Option (d) – Correct: The National Biopharma Mission is a Department of Biotechnology-led industry-academia programme implemented by BIRAC. It supports the development of biosimilars, monoclonal antibodies and other therapeutic proteins.
Park / Site : State
1. Virudhnagar : Tamil Nadu
2. Warangal : Telangana
3. Kalaburagi : Maharashtra
4. Amravati : Karnataka
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Pair 1 – Correct: Virudhnagar is listed as the PM MITRA Park site in Tamil Nadu. PM MITRA stands for Pradhan Mantri Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel, and the scheme aims to develop integrated textile parks.
Pair 2 – Correct: Warangal is listed as the PM MITRA Park site in Telangana. The scheme is meant to support textile-sector infrastructure through large-scale plug-and-play parks.
Pair 3 – Incorrect: Kalaburagi is in Karnataka, not Maharashtra. Maharashtra’s listed PM MITRA Park site is Amravati.
Pair 4 – Incorrect: Amravati is in Maharashtra, not Karnataka. Karnataka’s listed PM MITRA Park site is Kalaburagi.
1. It was launched to encourage skill development through short-duration training and skill certification.
2. PMKVY 4.0 is being implemented under the Skill India Programme during FY 2022-2026.
3. PMKVY 4.0 excludes courses linked to drones and Internet of Things, as these fall outside conventional skill training.
4. Under different components of PMKVY, more persons have been certified than trained.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: PMKVY was launched in 2015 to encourage skill development through short-duration training and skill certification. It is the flagship skill development scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
Statement 2 – Correct: PMKVY 4.0 is being implemented under the Skill India Programme during FY 2022-2026. It emphasises market-oriented, demand-driven and flexible skill training.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: PMKVY 4.0 does not exclude new-age skills. It includes courses linked to Industry 4.0, artificial intelligence, robotics, mechatronics, Internet of Things and drones.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: More persons have been trained than certified under PMKVY. The figures given are over 1.57 crore persons trained and over 1.21 crore persons certified under different components of the scheme.
1. Bihar, Jharkhand and Odisha do not have PM MITRA Parks, though they supply labour to southern garment clusters.
2. Textile units in Bihar may claim subsidy up to Rs 5,000 per month per employee.
3. Bihar’s industrial policy provides training incentives up to Rs 20,000 per worker.
4. The proposed role division places curriculum design mainly with public agencies and quality assurance mainly with firms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: Bihar, Jharkhand and Odisha do not have PM MITRA Parks, even though these States supply labour to southern garment clusters such as Tiruppur. Uttar Pradesh has one PM MITRA Park, while Bihar, Jharkhand and Odisha have none.
Statement 2 – Correct: Textile units in Bihar may claim subsidy up to Rs 5,000 per month per employee. The source also mentions an alternative support route through reimbursement up to 300 per cent of employer contributions to ESI and EPF.
Statement 3 – Correct: Bihar’s industrial policy provides training incentives up to Rs 20,000 per worker. The identified constraint is not the absence of incentives, but weak training infrastructure and poor industry alignment.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: The proposed role division is the reverse. Public money should support infrastructure and quality assurance, while firms should lead curriculum design and on-the-job skill upgrading.
1. SAF is a renewable or waste-derived aviation fuel that can be used as an alternative to conventional kerosene-based jet fuel.
2. SAF can be used in existing jet engines and aviation fuel systems only when it meets required certification and blending standards.
3. In April 2026, the ATF regulatory framework was amended to permit blending of aviation turbine fuel with biodiesel and green hydrogen.
4. The Alcohol-to-Jet pathway converts ethanol into aviation-grade fuel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: Sustainable Aviation Fuel is defined as a renewable or waste-derived aviation fuel used as an alternative to conventional kerosene-based jet fuel.
Statement 2 – Correct: SAF is described as a drop-in fuel, but not unconditionally. It can be used in existing jet engines and aviation fuel systems only when it satisfies required certification and blending standards.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: The April 2026 amendment permitted blending of aviation turbine fuel with ethanol and synthetic hydrocarbons, not with biodiesel and green hydrogen.
Statement 4 – Correct: Indian Oil Corporation is pursuing SAF through the Alcohol-to-Jet pathway, which converts ethanol into aviation-grade fuel.