1. It is India’s first marine conservation reserve notified under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. The reserve harbours extensive seagrass meadows, which are among the most productive ecosystems for carbon sequestration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Dugong Conservation Reserve in Palk Bay is indeed India’s first, but it was established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Statement 2 – Correct: The reserve harbours 12,250 hectares of seagrass meadows, which not only sustain Dugongs but also act as significant blue carbon sinks, making them highly productive ecosystems for carbon sequestration.
| List I (Species/Reserve) | List II (Characteristic/Recognition) |
|---|---|
| A. Dugong dugon | 1. Only strictly herbivorous marine mammal |
| B. Palk Bay Dugong Reserve | 2. Recognised as a global conservation model at IUCN 2025 |
| C. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve | 3. First marine biosphere reserve in India |
| D. Olive Ridley Turtle | 4. Known for mass nesting at Gahirmatha coast |
Codes:
A-1: Dugong dugon, also called the “sea cow,” is the only strictly herbivorous marine mammal.
B-2: Palk Bay Dugong Conservation Reserve was recognised at IUCN 2025 as a global conservation model.
C-3: Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, established in 1989, is India’s first marine biosphere reserve.
D-4: Olive Ridley Turtle is famous for arribada (mass nesting) at Gahirmatha coast, Odisha.
(a) is correct: Longer implementation periods are a core feature of S&DT.
(b) is correct: The Enabling Clause (1979) provides legal cover for differential treatment and non-reciprocity.
(d) is correct: LDCs have special flexibilities (e.g., extended transition in TRIPS, duty-free quota-free access, etc.).
(c) is incorrect: Giving up future claims to S&DT does not necessarily strip one of prior benefits already agreed; existing commitments remain intact until renegotiated or challenged.
Read More About Special And Differential TreatmentReason (R): Under WTO practice, any member can challenge the self-declared “developing country” status of another member.
Choose the correct option:
A is true: Analysts interpret China’s decision as a diplomatic signal of willingness to assume greater obligations and reduce objections to its “developing country” status in trade negotiations.
R is also true: WTO does not accept self-designation as absolute; other members can contest a country’s claim to “developing” status.
R also helps explain A: By signaling that it no longer intends to assert developing status in future negotiations, China is preempting challenges and repositioning itself.
The World Trade Organization (WTO) does not provide a formal definition of what constitutes a “developed” or “developing” country. Instead, it allows members to self-designate their status.
Contentious Practice of Self-Declaration:
Many countries opt to declare themselves as developing nations to gain access to special and differential treatment (S&DT) in trade rules. This practice has become controversial, as large economies such as China continue to claim developing country status despite their global economic influence.
Disputes and Challenges:
WTO members can contest another member’s self-designation. The U.S. and EU have frequently challenged China’s claim, leading to disputes and diplomatic pressure campaigns within the WTO framework.
1. The WTO Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies came into force in September 2025.
2. Under this fisheries pact, developing countries are exempt from core disciplines on over-fished stocks permanently.
3. China’s decision to forego new S&DT claims is seen as helping reform of the WTO’s negotiating “special and differential treatments” regime.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Statement 1 is correct: The Fisheries Subsidies Agreement formally entered into force on 15 September 2025.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Developing countries are not permanently exempt from all disciplines — there are transition phases, exceptions, and “special and differential treatment” modalities, but not blanket permanent exemptions.
Statement 3 is correct: Observers view China’s move as facilitating internal WTO reform of how S&DT is applied, by reducing objections to its developing status, and helping a new consensus.
1. A “Census Town” must have at least 75% of its total working population engaged in non-agricultural activities.
2. Urban local bodies in India enjoy more autonomy and financial control compared to Panchayati Raj institutions.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
S1 – Incorrect: The Census criterion is that at least 75% of the male main working population must be engaged in non-agricultural activities, not the total workforce.
S2 – Correct: Urban local bodies have greater autonomy and fiscal powers, while Panchayati Raj bodies are more dependent on centrally designed schemes.
1. It was endorsed by the United Nations Statistical Commission to create a harmonized approach to defining “urban.”
2. India has used this method in the 2011 Census and will continue with it in the 2027 Census to define “urban areas.”
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 1 — True: The UN Statistical Commission endorsed the Degree of Urbanization (DEGURBA) in March 2020 to harmonize comparisons of cities, towns, and rural areas globally.
Statement 2 — False: India did not use DEGURBA in 2011. The Census 2011 definition relied on statutory towns and census towns (population ≥5,000; ≥75% male main workers in non-agriculture; density ≥400/sq km). The Registrar General of India has indicated that the 2027 Census will retain the 2011 definition, i.e., still not adopt DEGURBA.
The Degree of Urbanisation (DEGURBA) is an internationally harmonized method that classifies the entire territory of a country along an urban–rural continuum.
Development and Endorsement
- Jointly developed by six international organizations: European Union, FAO, ILO, OECD, UN-Habitat, and the World Bank.
- Endorsed by the UN Statistical Commission in 2020, making it a globally recognized system.
Basis of Classification
- Population size
- Population density
- Contiguity of 1 km² population grid cells
Key Advantage
Unlike older methods based on local administrative units (which differ in size and shape across countries), DEGURBA uses a grid-based approach. This ensures consistency and comparability of urban–rural statistics between nations.
1. Chilika Lake – Largest brackish water lagoon in Asia
2. Pulicat Lake – Largest brackish water lake in India
3. Kolleru Lake – Freshwater to brackish gradient, Ramsar wetland
4. Ashtamudi Lake – Second largest brackish lake in Kerala
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Pair 1 – Correct: Chilika (Odisha) is Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon and the world’s second largest coastal lagoon.
Pair 2 – Incorrect: Pulicat is India’s second largest brackish water lake, not the largest.
Pair 3 – Correct: Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh) indeed shows a freshwater to brackish gradient and is a Ramsar wetland.
Pair 4 – Correct: Ashtamudi (Kerala) is the second largest brackish lake in Kerala.
1. It is the youngest sea on Earth, formed about 10,000–15,000 years ago after the last Ice Age.
2. It is the largest expanse of brackish water in the world and is semi-enclosed.
3. The Kiel Canal in Denmark links it to the North Sea.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
S1 – Correct: The Baltic Sea is geologically very young (10,000–15,000 years old), formed after glacial retreat.
S2 – Correct: It is the world’s largest brackish water body, shallow and semi-enclosed.
S3 – Incorrect: The Kiel Canal is in Germany, not Denmark, and connects the Baltic Sea to the North Sea.
1. It is produced mainly from edible crops like sugarcane and maize.
2. In its production process, no enzymatic hydrolysis step is involved.
3. Unlike First-Generation ethanol, it does not compete with food crops, thereby supporting food security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Incorrect: Second-generation (2G) ethanol is produced from non-food biomass, such as agricultural residues (corn stover, sugarcane bagasse) and energy crops. First-generation ethanol, on the other hand, is made from edible crops like sugarcane and maize.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: 2G ethanol production typically involves an enzymatic hydrolysis step. Lignocellulosic biomass needs to be broken down into fermentable sugars using enzymes like cellulases before fermentation.
Statement 3 – Correct: 2G ethanol avoids competition with food crops for land and resources, thereby supporting food security.