1. A Chief Minister automatically ceases to hold office as soon as the election result shows that his or her party has lost majority.
2. A formal resignation by a defeated Chief Minister after an Assembly election is largely a matter of constitutional convention.
3. The expiry of the five-year term of the Legislative Assembly operates as dissolution of the Assembly under Article 172.
4. After the expiry of the Assembly’s tenure, the Governor has to initiate the process for constituting a new Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Incorrect: A Chief Minister does not automatically cease to hold office merely because the election result shows defeat. Formal resignation after electoral defeat is largely a convention. Automatic cessation arises when the tenure of the Assembly ends and the Assembly stands dissolved.
Statement 2 – Correct: A formal resignation after defeat in an Assembly election is treated largely as a matter of convention. Even if the outgoing Chief Minister does not resign, dissolution of the Assembly at the end of its term makes continuance in office untenable.
Statement 3 – Correct: Article 172 provides that, unless sooner dissolved, a State Legislative Assembly continues for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer. The expiry of this five-year period operates as dissolution of the Assembly.
Statement 4 – Correct: Once the Assembly’s term expires, the Governor has to initiate the process for constituting a new Assembly. The issue is no longer merely about resignation by the outgoing Chief Minister, but about the constitutional transition to a newly constituted House.
1. Project 17A frigates use Combined Diesel or Gas propulsion involving a diesel engine and a gas turbine driving controllable pitch propellers.
2. The Coastal Surveillance Network includes radars, AIS, day/night cameras and meteorological sensors.
3. The use of 75% indigenous content in Project 17A means that the ships do not depend on foreign-origin critical systems for final combat integration.
4. A support infrastructure audit is irrelevant to naval operational readiness, since readiness depends only on the availability of ships.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: Project 17A ships use Combined Diesel or Gas propulsion, comprising a diesel engine and a gas turbine driving a controllable pitch propeller on each shaft. This is a technical feature of the platform, not a coastal-surveillance feature.
Statement 2 – Correct: The Coastal Surveillance Network consists of a Chain of Static Sensors with radars, Automatic Identification System, day/night cameras and meteorological sensors. This makes it a fixed surveillance architecture, unlike mobile frigates.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: The 75% indigenous-content figure does not by itself remove dependence on imported critical components. The source text notes that several critical parts remain foreign-sourced, and absence of such components can delay final integration even when much of the ship is domestically built.
Statement 4 – Incorrect: Support infrastructure is directly connected to operational readiness. The CAG press release on Works Management in the Indian Navy states that technical, administrative and residential infrastructure provides the essential support system for operational readiness of naval forces.
1. A Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
2. Once approved by Parliament, a National Emergency continues for six months and may be extended by further parliamentary approvals.
3. The Lok Sabha can disapprove the continuance of a National Emergency by passing a resolution to that effect.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 352, every Proclamation of National Emergency must be laid before both Houses of Parliament. It ceases to operate after one month unless approved by resolutions of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha before the expiry of that period. The one-month approval requirement was introduced by the 44th Constitutional Amendment, replacing the earlier two-month period.
Statement 2 – Correct: Once approved, the Proclamation remains in force for six months from the date on which the second approving resolution is passed. It may be continued for further periods of six months at a time, but each extension requires fresh approval by both Houses of Parliament. Article 352 does not prescribe a fixed maximum outer limit for such extensions.
Statement 3 – Correct: The Lok Sabha has a special disapproval power. If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving the Proclamation, or disapproving its continuance, the President must revoke it. This is different from parliamentary approval for continuation, which requires both Houses.
1. During a National Emergency declared on the ground of armed rebellion, the freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
2. During a National Emergency, the President may suspend the right to move any court for enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights, but not Articles 20 and 21.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 19 is automatically suspended under Article 358 only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression, not armed rebellion.
Statement 2 – Correct: Under Article 359, the President may suspend the right to move courts for enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights during Emergency. However, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended.
1. A Nagar Panchayat is constituted for a transitional area, that is, an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area.
2. A Municipality must be constituted even in an area specified by the Governor as an industrial township.
3. Wards Committees are constitutionally mandatory within the territorial area of every Municipality, irrespective of its population.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 243Q, a Nagar Panchayat is provided for a transitional area, meaning an area in transition from rural to urban status. The Governor specifies such areas having regard to factors such as population, density of population, revenue generated for local administration, percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities and economic importance.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 243Q creates an exception for industrial townships. A Municipality may not be constituted in an urban area or part of it if the Governor, by public notification, specifies it as an industrial township after considering the size of the area and municipal services being provided or proposed by an industrial establishment.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Wards Committees are mandatory only within the territorial area of a Municipality having a population of three lakhs or more. The State Legislature may make law regarding their composition, territorial area and manner of filling seats.
1. The superintendence, direction and control of municipal elections are vested in the Election Commission of India.
2. The State Legislature may authorise a Municipality to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
3. The Finance Commission constituted under Article 243-I also reviews the financial position of Municipalities.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Statement 1 – Incorrect: Under Article 243ZA, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and conduct of, all elections to Municipalities are vested in the State Election Commission referred to in Article 243K, not the Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 – Correct: Article 243X empowers the State Legislature, by law, to authorise a Municipality to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees. It may also assign State-levied taxes and provide grants-in-aid to Municipalities.
Statement 3 – Correct: Article 243Y provides that the Finance Commission constituted under Article 243-I shall also review the financial position of Municipalities and make recommendations to the Governor. These recommendations may cover distribution of taxes, grants-in-aid and measures needed to improve municipal finances.
1. Composition and territorial area of a Wards Committee
2. Manner in which seats in a Wards Committee are to be filled
3. Constitution of committees in addition to Wards Committees
Select the correct answer code:
Statement 1 – Correct: Article 243S provides that a State Legislature may, by law, make provision with respect to the composition and territorial area of a Wards Committee.
Statement 2 – Correct: The same Article also permits State law to determine the manner in which seats in a Wards Committee are to be filled.
Statement 3 – Correct: Article 243S further allows the State Legislature to make provision for committees in addition to Wards Committees. This enables States to create supplementary local committees within the municipal governance framework.
1. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population in the municipal area
2. Reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women
3. Reservation of offices of Chairpersons in Municipalities in such manner as the State Legislature may provide
Select the correct answer code:
Statement 1 – Correct: Article 243T provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Municipality. The number of such reserved seats must bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats as their population bears to the total population of the municipal area.
Statement 2 – Correct: Article 243T requires that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Municipality shall be reserved for women. This includes the number of seats reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Statement 3 – Correct: The Constitution also provides for reservation of offices of Chairpersons in Municipalities for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women, in such manner as the State Legislature may provide.
Option (a) – Incorrect: Zonal Councils are not constitutional bodies. They were established by law under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council, which is a separate constitutional mechanism that may be established by the President when public interest so requires.
Option (b) – Correct: The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 provides for five Zonal Councils: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern. They are statutory forums meant to promote coordination and consultation among States and between the Centre and States.
Option (c) – Incorrect: Zonal Councils are not chaired by the Prime Minister. The Union Home Minister is the chairperson of the five Zonal Councils, while Chief Ministers of member States act as Vice-Chairperson by rotation.
Option (d) – Incorrect: Zonal Councils are deliberative and advisory bodies. Their recommendations are not binding on the Central Government or the State Governments concerned.
Option (a) – Incorrect: The Goods and Services Tax Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A, not a body created by an ordinary parliamentary law.
Option (b) – Correct: Article 279A provides that the Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council. Its other members include the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance and the Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation, or any other Minister nominated by each State Government.
Option (c) – Incorrect: The Supreme Court has held that the recommendations of the GST Council have persuasive value and are not binding on the Union and States. The Council functions within a cooperative federal framework.
Option (d) – Incorrect: States are directly represented in the GST Council through their nominated Ministers. The States collectively have a weighted voting share in its decisions.